I ask that non-libertarians refrain from answering this post, please.
It was said earlier today that government regulation causes economic recessions and that we should have a laissez-faire economy. But does laissez-faire really help the economy avoid recession?
Starting when the federal government began operation there were 15 economic panics/recessions- one on average every 54.78 months. Their average duration was 33.8 months.
There were certainly federal regulatory laws before 1902, but the presidency of Theodore Roosevelt is generally taken as marking the end of the laissez-faire era of federal economic regulation.
Using the textbook definition of recession (with a recession being relative to what came immediately before- there was a recession in 1937 during the Great Depression even though the entire economy was worse than it had been at its height in the Roaring Twenties) there have been 21 panics/recessions since 1902 occurring on average every 43.33 months and lasting an average of 14.75 months (not counting the current ongoing recession that began last year).
So how exactly is a hands-off attitude from the government good for the economy? How does laissez-faire help prevent economic recessions? Recessions post-laissez-faire have been more frequent, but their durations have been shorter than the ones during laissez-faire. How can this be if laissez-faire is supposed to be better for the economy?
It was said earlier today that government regulation causes economic recessions and that we should have a laissez-faire economy. But does laissez-faire really help the economy avoid recession?
Starting when the federal government began operation there were 15 economic panics/recessions- one on average every 54.78 months. Their average duration was 33.8 months.
There were certainly federal regulatory laws before 1902, but the presidency of Theodore Roosevelt is generally taken as marking the end of the laissez-faire era of federal economic regulation.
Using the textbook definition of recession (with a recession being relative to what came immediately before- there was a recession in 1937 during the Great Depression even though the entire economy was worse than it had been at its height in the Roaring Twenties) there have been 21 panics/recessions since 1902 occurring on average every 43.33 months and lasting an average of 14.75 months (not counting the current ongoing recession that began last year).
So how exactly is a hands-off attitude from the government good for the economy? How does laissez-faire help prevent economic recessions? Recessions post-laissez-faire have been more frequent, but their durations have been shorter than the ones during laissez-faire. How can this be if laissez-faire is supposed to be better for the economy?