Dixie - In Memoriam
New member
I've been contemplating this for a few days now. We recently had a SCOTUS ruling, which allows corporations to make political contributions, under the 1st amendment protections of free speech. Pinheads screamed and moaned about this, as you will recall. They questioned the wisdom of bestowing "human rights" or more appropriately, individual constitutional rights, on corporate entities. They've argued up, down, and sideways, that this was never intended by the founding fathers, and is an affront to our democratic system.
Fast forward to the mosque issue, where they are now standing with a "corporate entity" (the people building the mosque) and claiming their 1st amendment rights are being violated. I don't understand this contradiction, I thought "corporations" weren't supposed to have the same rights as individuals?
Now I'm sure they will argue this group doesn't 'qualify' as a 'corporation' but the funding for this project is not being provided by an individual, and this is not an individual's project, it's a group or organization. Why is one such entity entitled to full constitutional rights, and another similar entity isn't?
Fast forward to the mosque issue, where they are now standing with a "corporate entity" (the people building the mosque) and claiming their 1st amendment rights are being violated. I don't understand this contradiction, I thought "corporations" weren't supposed to have the same rights as individuals?
Now I'm sure they will argue this group doesn't 'qualify' as a 'corporation' but the funding for this project is not being provided by an individual, and this is not an individual's project, it's a group or organization. Why is one such entity entitled to full constitutional rights, and another similar entity isn't?