Obviously I cant trust anything that comes from a University or a journalist, and the historians have recently become obviously too political/agenda driven, so I thought I would ask here. I know that there were at least two waves, so perhaps the motive changed.
My wife says that they were intending to send a message to blacks to behave, they were pointing out to blacks of the time that they had it a whole lot better than they and their ancestors used to, so no sniveling about such things as "white only" and "black only".
And maybe too things could move back in that direction again if there was too much trouble from the blacks.
My wife is UN trained in Genocide but she could be wrong.
My wife says that they were intending to send a message to blacks to behave, they were pointing out to blacks of the time that they had it a whole lot better than they and their ancestors used to, so no sniveling about such things as "white only" and "black only".
And maybe too things could move back in that direction again if there was too much trouble from the blacks.
My wife is UN trained in Genocide but she could be wrong.