Yes you do. You HATE Arabs and you crave for the IDF to eradicate them.
Mantra 1e. Mantra 30a. Lame.
You don't want to sound petty, murderous and genocidal, however, so you are more or less required to insist that unarmed Gazan civilian noncombatants somehow "started" the war, or that Iran suddenly decided to loan out Al Qassam for free, all to imply that Israel somehow did not initiate a genocidal 2nd Nakba against unarmed civilian noncombatants.
Hamas started the latest war with Israel.
Let me know how that works for you.
Sure didn't work out well for Hamas!
There certainly is! Read the article
here.
We're talking about Gazans.
...and Hamas.
Israel HATES their Arab neighbors, especially the Gazans,
That tends to happen when Hamas keeps firing rockets at Israel, and launched an attack upon Israel.
because they are so close that the Israelis can still smell their odor and find it insufferable.
What 'odor' is this, IBD? You said these people don't exist! You are still locked in that paradox. You are still being irrational.
You acknowledge that the Gazans have no capability to attack anyone, seeing as how they have no money and no army, yet you are required to OBEY Israeli propaganda that Gazans, not well-funded Iranian proxies, somehow initiated the war, somehow justifying the IDF to slaughter the lot of them ... as long as Israel occasionally announces that they took out "a Hamas leader." To that end, of course you don't care how many Arab children are wasted, alas, you want more, more, more. You actively celebrate Arab deaths. You're pretty shitty in that regard.
You are still locked in that paradox too. You cannot argue both sides of a paradox, IBD. It's irrational.
Nope. It's a genocide, initiated and perpetrated on the Gazans by the Israelis. The Geneva Conventions and the Convention against Genocide are being violated thoroughly by the IDF.
There is no genocide.
Right, you are asking me to prove a negative.
Fallacy fallacy. A positive statement is not a negative. The word "isn't" does NOT necessarily create a negative statement. YOU made the positive claim. He is asking you to "prove" it (probably by a Holy Link or something).
Al Qassam is a radical, militant proxy of Iran, and Iran does not have its proxies doing anyone's bidding but the Ayatollah's. You are the one making the absurd assertion that Al Qassam is somehow submitting to the will of Hamas! You need to show this, and not by merely pointing to mere commentary by others who are equally mistaken as you are.
He never said it is submitting to the will of Hamas, IBD. Mantra 30a.
You are the one who doesn't know what the legal definition of "genocide" is, but you are about to learn.
There is no genocide. English is not defined by a "legal" anything.
Israel, the United States and almost every other country is a signatory to Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide and is henceforth required to adhere to this convention.
Hamas is not a signatory of the Convention. There is no genocide.
In the present Convention, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such:
(a) Killing members of the group;
(b) Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;
(c) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part;
(d) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
(e) Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
The IDF's genocide meets this definition in multiple ways with many counts each, ... and only one is sufficient. The Convention goes on to read:
So, according to you (by committing a contextomy fallacy, no less), ALL wars are "genocide".
Article III The following acts shall be punishable:
(a) Genocide;
(b) Conspiracy to commit genocide;
(c) Direct and public incitement to commit genocide;
(d) Attempt to commit genocide;
(e) Complicity in genocide.
Article IV Persons committing genocide or any of the other acts enumerated in article III shall be punished, whether they are constitutionally responsible rulers, public officials or private individuals.
Now you know. Israel signed up to this very definition, as did the United States, and they both signed up to punish all those who violate this Convention. The extent to which you disagree with this Convention is irrelevant.
Contextomy fallacy. There is no genocide.
The Contracting Parties,
* Having considered the declaration made by the General Assembly of the United Nations in its resolution 96 (I) dated 11 December 1946 that genocide is a crime under international law, contrary to the spirit and aims of the United Nations and condemned by the civilized world,
* Recognizing that at all periods of history genocide has inflicted great losses on humanity, and
* Being convinced that, in order to liberate mankind from such an odious scourge, international co-operation is required,
Hereby agree as hereinafter provided :
Article I The Contracting Parties confirm that genocide, whether committed in time of peace or in time of war, is a crime under international law which they undertake to prevent and to punish.
Once again, both Israel and the US signed up for this.
Contextomy fallacy. There is no genocide.
Exactly. You don't get to make up your own definitions.
Inversion fallacy.
Assumption of victory fallacy. Argument of the Stone fallacy.
You have not. You provided merely an internet link to those mistaken propaganda purevyors who do your thinking for you. You need to show either the money flow or an announcement from Iran that they are allowing Hamas to use their proxies.
Try English. It works better. You are still locked in this paradox.