Yakuda
Verified User
I was in a conversation about Israels retaliation on Hamas on another thread. The other poster said Israel has a right to retaliate when attacked but said they had gone "too" far that they had retaliated "too" much. So I asked, if Israel has a right to retaliate but hamas uses civilians as cover, how is Israel supposed to exercise their right to retaliate and not raise the ire of American leftists because their retaliation killed civilians that hamas put in harms way? I'm still waiting for an answer so I thought I'd ask the same question here.