Settling the Biological Virus Debate

YOU claim that your religion has no god.

I have no religion but was raised Catholic with all the propaganda that could be jammed down my throat. It worked well until I reached about 12. Then the absurdity and endless contradiction blew it apart. No religion usually means no god.
 
You have made assertions that viruses don't exist and viruses do exist but remain in the body in an inert state until electromagnetism activates them.

No, I've made the assertion that biological viruses don't exist. Arthur Firstenberg, an author I've quoted, made the assertion that the flu virus exists but remains inert until electromagnetic frequencies, or EMFs, activate it and cause the flu. My own theory is that the the EMFs are doing it without the need for any inert biological virus.
 
You have made an unsubstantiated assertion that because Pastuer is guilty of some fraud then he must be guilty of fraud for all his claims.

No, I didn't make that assertion, though someone who engages in fraud on a regular basis is hardly someone to be trusted. For those who are unaware of Louis Pasteur's fraud in his research and the effect it had on the battle of the Germ and Terrain theories, I recommend the following articles:

Germ Theory Versus Terrain: The Wrong Side Won the Day | westonaprice.org

Louis Pasteur, Unchecked Fraud: The Unscientific Origins Of Germ Theory | earthdwellerdaily.com

You have used the same false logic to try to discredit others.

I can't defend myself if you don't name the people I have supposedly maligned.

The simple fact of the matter is is that the theory that viruses exist fits all the evidence

For those who would like to read a different point of view, I highly recommend Dr. Mark Bailey's essay, A Farewell to Virology- Expert Edition.
 
From Wikipedia:
**
Koch's postulates (/kɒx/ KOKH)[2] are four criteria designed to establish a causal relationship between a microbe and a disease.
**

Source:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Koch's_postulates

There's no mention that it was designed specifically for bacteria, only microbes. Alleged viruses certainly qualify there.

LOL. There is no mention that it applies to viruses either.

Are you disputing that these alleged biological viruses are microbes?

Viruses were unknown at the time so it certainly wasn't created with viruses in mind.

Irrelevant. Viruses are still microbes. The problem has nothing to do with the fact that alleged viruses weren't yet "discovered", but rather with the fact that these alleged viruses simply couldn't be shown to exist using Koch's postulates. Virologists, instead of logically concluding that microbes simply didn't exist, decided instead to water down the standards of evidence to the point that they could be "shown" to exist after all.

I never said it did. Unicorns might be real too. The issue is not whether applying Koch's postulates on a microbe and coming up empty proves that the microbe doesn't exist, but it -does- strongly suggest it.

It doesn't suggest it at all.

I strongly disagree with you there.

All the other evidence points to viruses existing.

What evidence are you referring to?

Picking out one thing and claiming that is proof of non existence is false logic on your part.

Again, I have never claimed that I or anyone else has proven that biological viruses don't exist. What Mark Bailey and the other signatories in the statement referenced in the opening post have said is that to date, no one has shown compelling evidence that they exist. They have also provided a means for labs to try to test that they do in fact exist. So far, it appears no lab has attempted to do the tests they suggest.

Bacteria is invisible to the naked eye. Does that mean everything visible to the naked eye doesn't exist?

No. In point of fact, your bringing up of bacteria is a good point- Bacteria frequently have shapes that are distinct from other microbes, but most importantly, they -have- been isolated and even cultured. No one is disputing the existence of bacteria as far as I know.

What I wanted a few posts ago was to get to the point of Koch's postulates rather than being hung up on the postulates themselves. Their purpose is to try to find out whether or not a given microbe causes disease. At present, I just wanted to point out that Koch's postulates call for not just the isolation of a microbe, but the re-isolation of said microbe after going through some steps.

You are simply attempting to take facts in isolation. That is a common used by conspiracy nuts.

I guess you were past due to hit me with an ad hominem attack.

Using the word isolate to mean one thing and then another is the equivocation fallacy. Humans can not be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture.

Agreed. They are not microbes either. Apparently you missed that part of Koch's postulates.

Apparently you are not familiar with logic or history or fact or fiction.

Not sure why you think your unsubstantiated assertions in that sentence are related to my point.

You may have noticed that proving -anything- is pretty hard to do. The signatories of the statement referenced in the opening post never claim that they have proven that an alleged virus has never been isolated. Instead, they challenge anyone in the world to try to ascertain that a virus anywhere has ever been isolated. So far, it appears that no one's been able to do this.

The signatories of the statement have simply ignored many known facts

Such as?
 
This is what we had before the polio vaccine was discovered. https://www.npr.org/2021/10/25/1047...-the-last-to-still-rely-on-an-iron-lung-to-br There were money drives that school kids participated in. They gave us folders with slots for dimes and quarters that we would fill and return to school. Salk saved millions from this fate with a VACCINE.

You may find the following article educational:

A Story About Polio, Pesticides and the Meaning of Science | Children's Health Defense

I think you meant to say the article is full of unsubstantiated allegations.

No, I didn't. I found the article to be chalk full of -substantiated- allegations. If you find that any statement in the linked article is unsubstantiated, by all means, let us know.
 
Apparently not always:
**
Even Robert Koch himself had difficulty with his own Postulates which led him to wiggle around some of them in attempts to “prove” pathogenicity of certain bacteria.
**

Source:
Thomas Rivers Revision of Koch’s Postulates (1937) | viroliegy.com

True, but they are still microbes, which is what Koch's postulates were for. I think that the article from viroliegy referenced above provides a good summation for why Koch's Postulates were ditched for viruses:

**
By 1937, it was very clear that virologists were unable to satisfy any of Koch’s Postulates in order to prove invisible particles assumed to be “viruses” existed and could cause disease. Even Robert Koch himself had difficulty with his own Postulates which led him to wiggle around some of them in attempts to “prove” pathogenicity of certain bacteria. Instead of accepting that the Postulates, as originally stated, worked and disproved the Germ Theory, virologists looked to various indirect immunological methods to prove their claims.

This led to Thomas Rivers and his own attempts to water down Koch’s Postulates by revising them to allow virologists even more wiggle room and expanding the 4 Postulates to 6. Unfortunately for all of virology, Koch had unintentionally trapped them in a logical prison for which they still can not free themselves from. If virologists deny Koch’s original Postulates, they are denying logic itself.

**

Ignoring that science moves forward seems to be your shtick.

An unsubstantiated assertion.

Koch's postulates are not logic.

Agreed, but they are logical.

They are a way to identify certain microbes.

Their purpose was not to simply identify certain microbes, but also to determine whether or not certain microbes cause disease.

They didn't work in all cases so as science does, it revised them.

Virologists couldn't find that any alleged virus exists by using them, so they decided to water down their standards of evidence by ditching Koch's postulates. The irony is that even the WHO apparently wasn't aware of this. River's postulates were the first watering down, but River's postulates still require the isolation of the microbe in question, something which no one has ever shown was actually done in the case of biological viruses.

Not because they wanted to invent viruses but because something existed that couldn't be grown in a petri dish.

If you want to believe that, go right ahead. Personally, I'd prefer having some solid evidence that biological viruses exist before believing in them.

Until you come up with a better theory than viruses for the RNA sequences found

Biological life forms have plenty of RNA sequences. Finding RNA sequences only indicates the existence of life forms.
 
No, I've made the assertion that biological viruses don't exist. Arthur Firstenberg, an author I've quoted, made the assertion that the flu virus exists but remains inert until electromagnetic frequencies, or EMFs, activate it and cause the flu. My own theory is that the the EMFs are doing it without the need for any inert biological virus.

LOL. So your evidence is something that completely refutes your argument?

If flu existed before we used electricity why did it not become much more prevalent after electricity was being used so much? The problem you have is that people that live near power lines would have flu all the time if your hypothesis had any merit. Why does flu exist in areas that don't have electricity? Why was the flu in 1918-19 worse than flu today? Most of the country was still without electricity back then. Sun spot history shows that many years had more sun activity than those years. 1937 and 1947 were 50% more than those years and no major flu outbreak then. Once again, you promote something that doesn't meet reality.
 
No, I didn't. I found the article to be chalk full of -substantiated- allegations. If you find that any statement in the linked article is unsubstantiated, by all means, let us know.

Proving once again you can't tell fact from opinion.

What do you think was a substantial allegation in the link you posted?
The author even admits he has nothing substantial:
it is one of those cases where I have to humbly accept not knowing the definitive answer at this very second.
 
Yes, physics predicted it, but it's also been said that physics break down in black holes:
How physics breaks down in a black hole | phys.org

Clearly, the laws of physics can't be the complete picture if they break down there- that's what I was trying to get at, that Koch's postulates should work for any microorganism regardless of the fact that they weren't discovered until after Koch formed his postulates. In any case, as an aside, just found this interesting article on black holes that came out about a week ago:
Scientists find first evidence that black holes are the source of dark energy | phys.org

If we follow your logic, since the current theory breaks down in a black hole then we should not believe any physics.

No, that wouldn't be my logic. I'm simply pointing out that the laws of physics must be missing something if they break down in black holes.

If we follow your logic since the original theory of gravity has been modified by Einstein's work then gravity can't exist.

Again, that wouldn't be my logic at all.

Science simply applies the best answer they have to the facts.

I agree that -true- science does this.

The best answer to the facts of why RNA sequences are found, of how those RNA sequences multiply, of how sickness alleged to be caused by viruses occurs is that viruses do exist.

Here is where we strongly disagree.

You have not given us a better theory. You have only pointed out that you don't believe it.

Again, this isn't true. I've pointed to evidence strongly suggesting that toxins and EMFs are the most likely true causes of diseases attributed to biological viruses.
 
I think you're confusing Rivers with Koch. As to River's conclusions that a new set of postulates were needed for alleged biological viruses, I think that the viroliegy article sums up the reason for that quite aptly in the last bit that I quoted in it:

**
All Rivers did was deliberately weaken Koch’s Postulates in order to make life easier for virologists to skirt around established rules of logic. Anyone claiming that they fulfilled Koch’s Postulates by using the criteria laid forth by Rivers are outright lying and being intentionally fraudulent…which in all honesty, sums up virology to a T.
**

Source:
Thomas Rivers Revision of Koch’s Postulates (1937) | viroliegy.com

Science moving forward isn't a problem for me.

It's not a problem for me either.

Newton's original theory of gravity didn't predict black holes. Is that evidence that black holes don't exist?

No.

You seem to be arguing that it would be since you claim we have to apply old science in our modern world.

I've never made such a claim.

I also see that you didn't actually respond in any meaningful way to the quote above regarding River's postulates.
 
An unsubstantiated assertion.
It's pretty well substantiated. Viruses were unknown to science at the time of Koch. Science has discovered viruses since then.
You are denying that viruses exist.
That would be substantiated that you are ignoring that science moves forward.
Unless you want to claim you aren't denying viruses exist. You seem to argue the do exist at the same time you argue they don't exist.

Agreed, but they are logical.

Because something is logical doesn't mean it can be applied to all things.
Ducks have wings. Ducks can fly.
Planes have wings. Planes can fly.
That doesn't mean if a child has butterfly wings that they can fly.
Their purpose was not to simply identify certain microbes, but also to determine whether or not certain microbes cause disease.
At the time they were created, viruses were not known. Should we apply Newtonian physics instead of quantum physics to quarks since Newtonian physics is logical?



Virologists couldn't find that any alleged virus exists by using them, so they decided to water down their standards of evidence by ditching Koch's postulates. The irony is that even the WHO apparently wasn't aware of this. River's postulates were the first watering down, but River's postulates still require the isolation of the microbe in question, something which no one has ever shown was actually done in the case of biological viruses.
That isn't exactly true.
https://www.science.org/content/art...ected-people-coronavirus-here-s-what-happened
I am curious as to how nasal swabs were able to transfer the illness from one person to another if the transfer has never been shown.



If you want to believe that, go right ahead. Personally, I'd prefer having some solid evidence that biological viruses exist before believing in them.
And yet you believe in black holes?
There is a database of over 6,000,000 times that RNA has been sequenced and it doesn't fit the sequence of any RNA produced in animal cells.

Biological life forms have plenty of RNA sequences. Finding RNA sequences only indicates the existence of life forms.
Since RNA indicates a life form and the RNA doesn't come from the cell, where does it come from? You have just argued that it MUST come from a life form. The most likely life form at this time would be a virus.
 
I have no religion but was raised Catholic with all the propaganda that could be jammed down my throat. It worked well until I reached about 12. Then the absurdity and endless contradiction blew it apart. No religion usually means no god.

You are a member of:
The Church of No God.
The Church of Green.
The Church of Global Warming.
The Church of Covid.
The Church of the Ozone Hole.
The Church of Karl Marx.

ALL of them are fundamentalist style religions.
 
Not biological ones, no. You're confusing my belief on this with that of Arthur Firstenberg's, at least at the time that he published his Invisible Rainbow book. Apparently you either didn't read or forgot about how I prefaced my quote from his book. Once more:

**
Note that the author still believes in viruses, but believes that the triggering factor is not the alleged flu virus, but rather EMFs
**

The fact that Mr. Firstenberg believed and perhaps still believes that biological viruses exist doesn't take away from the evidence he presented that in the case of the flu, EMFs apparently play the most important role in the flu disease.

In other words, you have no explanation for how disease spreads if viruses don't exist.

Apparently you didn't really digest what Mr. Firstenberg said. He believed that the alleged flu virus was essentially inert. If the alleged flu virus was inert, the same effect could happen without a virus at all. I quoted a passage from Mr. Firstenberg's book that dealt specifically with the flu virus, but there is a lot more of his book that talks of the negative health effects that EMFs have regardless of whether any alleged virus is present at all. And then there are the role of other environmental toxins as well. There have been studies suggesting that air pollution "worsened the effects" of Covid:

Coronavirus and Air Pollution | harvard.edu

Why air pollution is linked to severe cases of COVID-19 | stanford.edu

Does air pollution increase risk from COVID-19? Here's what we know | abcnews.go.com

If the Cov 2 virus doesn't exist, then it stands to reason that air pollution itself might be one of the causes of Covid 19. It's no secret that people in China were wearing masks long before Covid 19, due to the terrible quality of the air.
 
No, that wouldn't be my logic. I'm simply pointing out that the laws of physics must be missing something if they break down in black holes.
And Koch's postulates don't work for humans, viruses and wombats so they must be missing something. That is why they changed them just like why they will change the laws of physics at some point to identify what goes on in black holes.

Again, that wouldn't be my logic at all.



I agree that -true- science does this.
And yet you want to throw away the only theory that explains the diseases, how they pass from one organism to another and why the RNA exists for something that can't begin to explain it.


Here is where we strongly disagree.



Again, this isn't true. I've pointed to evidence strongly suggesting that toxins and EMFs are the most likely true causes of diseases attributed to biological viruses.
You have not pointed to any strong evidence.
Your explanation doesn't explain why the RNA exists.
Your explanation doesn't explain why the RNA multiplies.
Your explanation doesn't explain why virus RNA sequences don't align with any other RNA found in healthy cells.
Your explanation doesn't explain why the disease spreads instead of being localized which is what would occur if it was a toxin.
Your explanation has not identified any toxins associated with viral diseases.
Your EMF explanation says that viruses DO exist which directly contradicts your claim they don't.

Until you can explain in total and without deflection how all of those occur your don't have any evidence at all. You run from one explanation to the next and don't try to tie them all together. The problem is that your explanations don't withstand even basic scrutiny. some of your explanations contradict other explanations. You only have bullshit you are regurgitating without being able to actually discuss the topic in an informed manner.

You don't have strong evidence. You can't show any evidence to answer
 
Apparently you didn't really digest what Mr. Firstenberg said. He believed that the alleged flu virus was essentially inert. If the alleged flu virus was inert, the same effect could happen without a virus at all. I quoted a passage from Mr. Firstenberg's book that dealt specifically with the flu virus, but there is a lot more of his book that talks of the negative health effects that EMFs have regardless of whether any alleged virus is present at all. And then there are the role of other environmental toxins as well. There have been studies suggesting that air pollution "worsened the effects" of Covid:

Coronavirus and Air Pollution | harvard.edu

Why air pollution is linked to severe cases of COVID-19 | stanford.edu

Does air pollution increase risk from COVID-19? Here's what we know | abcnews.go.com

If the Cov 2 virus doesn't exist, then it stands to reason that air pollution itself might be one of the causes of Covid 19. It's no secret that people in China were wearing masks long before Covid 19, due to the terrible quality of the air.

Another example of you running from one explanation to another when your explanations don't make any sense.

If one thing can worsen another is not proof that the first thing is the cause. your logical fallacies are getting tiring.
If the disease is caused by a toxin then name the toxin and explain the source of the specific RNA sequence. Until you can do both you are doing nothing but denying facts.
 
I did make that assertion, although I think that Dr. Mark Bailey gives a better explanation of what's going on. I've quoted his explanation in Post #532.

Nowhere in the quote does Bailey address the actual process of how de novo assembly works. He doesn't discuss the computer code. He doesn't discuss the overlapping segments. He doesn't tell us the length of the snippets. He doesn't list the companies that provide the hardware and software. He would appear to avoid an explanation of the actual process. All Bailey does it simply refer to it as an invention. The computer is an "invention." That doesn't mean it doesn't work.


Since Bailey gives no explanation of the process of de novo assembly, where does he give any explanation of why it doesn't work? Once again, we see you just throwing shit at the wall without understanding that you are the one that is covered in shit since you can't defend your position.
 
I never said that proteins could be "grown" in a culture. I simply said that they can be isolated or purified. Wikipedia has an article on this here:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Protein_purification

Feel free to look for an equivalent process for biological viruses.

Funny since the same processes are used for isolating and purifying viruses.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virus_inactivation

You'll note that that process is -not- called "virus purification", but rather "virus inactivation". It's for alleged viruses in general. They're not even -claiming- to isolate viruses in that process.

Let me ask you. Can viruses be purified the same way as proteins?

If biological viruses actually existed, yes. They're supposedly bigger than proteins after all. The only reason I can think of as to why they can't be is because they don't exist.
 
What is ridiculous is that they can't explain reality better than virus theory.
What is ridiculous about them is they rely on fallacies.
What is ridiculous about them is you can't defend them with any facts or logic.

Unsubstantiated assertions don't help your position.

You are correct. Unsubstantiated assertions don't help your position.

Nice deflection, but it doesn't change the fact that you haven't substantiated the 3 assertions you made in your last post that I've quoted above.

What is ridiculous is that they can't explain reality better than virus theory.
Your explanation for how disease spreads without viruses existing relies on viruses actually existing.

I strongly disagree that my explanation for alleged viral diseases relies on viruses existing, but feel free to show evidence to the contrary.
 
It is actually you who hasn't substantiated that any alleged "unique" RNA sequence comes from any alleged virus.

Dr. Mark Bailey gets into the deceptions involved in the alleged sequencing of viruses in his essay A Farewell to Virology-Expert Edition. Quoting from it:

**
METAGENOMIC SEQUENCING — VIROLOGY’S FINAL GASP?

[snip]

It is pointed out that with regard to virology, a far bigger concern than "computing resources" is that a process that can be employed for sequencing genetic material of known provenance (e.g. human, bacterial, and fungal cells) has morphed into algorithmic assembly of genetic fragments of unknown provenance.
**

Since the very first sentence contains a falsehood, we can stop right there. The same process that is used to sequence viruses is used to sequence human, bacterial and fungal cells.

The same process, yes, but the problem is that unlike human, bacterial and fungal cells, which are of known provenance due to the ability to isolate those types of cells, since viruses have never been isolated, there is no solid evidence that genetic material they're sequencing comes from viruses.

I have just provided you a link showing that viruses are isolated using the same methods used to isolate proteins.

I imagine you're referring to Post #531, which I rebutted in Post #558.
 
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