SmarterthanYou
rebel
Yes they do- it says so in the Constitution- a documents you should read sometime.
U.S. Constitution
Article III
Section 2:
…In all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls, and those in which a State shall be Party, the supreme Court shall have original Jurisdiction. In all the other Cases before mentioned, the supreme Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact, with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress shall make…”
perhaps you should read it sometime, because nowhere in that little blurb you copied and pasted has the word 'interpret' in it.
fyi, there are very few on here that know the constitution better than I, you are not one of them.