In the Boston Massacre, some Red Coats shot some Bostonians in 1770. The Red Coats were defended in court by John Adams, one of the Founding Fathers. He was also one of the authors of the model for the Bill Of Rights, the Massachusetts' Declaration of Rights.
While somewhat exaggerated, you do make a valid point.
Well, it is California, and the driver is a White male...
Their issue with the Crown wasn't one of public order, but rather fair and equal treatment under the law in terms of citizenry, trade, and economics.In the Boston Massacre, some Red Coats shot some Bostonians in 1770. The Red Coats were defended in court by John Adams, one of the Founding Fathers. He was also one of the authors of the model for the Bill Of Rights, the Massachusetts' Declaration of Rights.
So a similar thing happened to what you have pictured here, but it was in a courtroom. I am just saying that the Founding Fathers wrestled with the same issues we are wrestling with now. I have no reason to believe that 250 years from now our descendants will not be wrestling with these issues, but I sure hope they are not.
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Boston Massacre - Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org
I agree the issue in the Revolution was not public order. The issue in the Boston Massacre was public order, and one of the issues in the Bill of Rights was public order. So, it would be fair to say immediately before and after the Revolution, people were dealing with this issue.Their issue with the Crown wasn't one of public order,
I understand what you are saying, and I am just disagreeing with you on a technicality, sort of... Anyway, the British had no citizens. The concept of citizenship was really reintroduced into Europe by the later French Revolution. Britain had subjects.Americans were sort of EINO's (English in Name Only). They weren't full British citizens.
Voting should be a privilege granted to many in society but not universal. I'd start by limiting it to owners. That is, persons with a minimum net worth, or who own property not rent, that sort of thing. Those on any sort of public assistance like SNAP, welfare, unemployment, etc., are ineligible to vote.Most subjects could not vote, where ever they were. After the American Revolution, most Americans could not vote. Even most white men over the age of 25 could not or did not vote.
A man who owns a slave would rarely want to free the slaves. Limiting voting to a few means that they will use government to steal from the rest.Voting should be a privilege granted to many in society but not universal. I'd start by limiting it to owners. That is, persons with a minimum net worth, or who own property not rent, that sort of thing. Those on any sort of public assistance like SNAP, welfare, unemployment, etc., are ineligible to vote.
Why? Because those receiving the benefits of society without having a vested interest in society economically shouldn't be deciding what government funds, and that's the major thing government does. It argues that in order to participate in electing government, you have to have a vested interest in the nation and its betterment. Little or no participation, no vote.
The man who owns the boat rarely has time to rock it.
Slavery is illegal. But that aside, perpetual welfare is a form of slavery only the person enslaved is owned by the government. Limiting voting to owners in society means the government can't buy votes using social welfare programs like they can now to steal from those who are still free while increasing those enslaved by government handouts.A man who owns a slave would rarely want to free the slaves. Limiting voting to a few means that they will use government to steal from the rest.
It is now. We were one of the last Western countries to ban it, because we had a voting class that was not so remote that they would not lose money from banning it, but not so complete that they would pressure to release the slaves.Slavery is illegal.
You are a good worker for the plutocracy. Not much for the American experiment and Democracy.Voting should be a privilege granted to many in society but not universal. I'd start by limiting it to owners. That is, persons with a minimum net worth, or who own property not rent, that sort of thing. Those on any sort of public assistance like SNAP, welfare, unemployment, etc., are ineligible to vote.
Why? Because those receiving the benefits of society without having a vested interest in society economically shouldn't be deciding what government funds, and that's the major thing government does. It argues that in order to participate in electing government, you have to have a vested interest in the nation and its betterment. Little or no participation, no vote.
The man who owns the boat rarely has time to rock it.