8 Facts That Prove the Tea Party Is Ignorant of the U.S. Constitution

(Originally Posted by apple0154) How can anyone believe the founding fathers strived for a better way of life but didn't give a damn about life itself? How can anyone interpret the Constitution in such a bizarre manner?

nobody is interpreting it in that way. you are the one making that ridiculous accusation with no evidence or basis of fact other than your own hyperbolic emotions.

It's not a ridiculous accusation. People are saying the government has no authority to implement health care and that is resulting in 45,000 deaths each year. Some posters are saying the founding fathers never intended for the government to provide health care. How else can that be interpreted other than those posters believing the founding fathers didn't give a damn if citizens died?

Health care wasn't specifically mentioned as there wasn't any health care to mention over 200 years ago. However, the Preamble "states in general terms, and courts have referred to it as reliable evidence of, the Founding Fathers' intentions regarding the Constitution's meaning and what they hoped the Constitution would achieve." If the purpose of the constitution was to offer the people a better life what is more basic than health?

Some posters have said the government's "goal" was/is to offer freedom and the ability to realize the "American Dream". Isn't health the first requirement? If the goal of government is to do all it can to aid freedom and the ability to realize the American Dream then it follows the goal of government is to help people stay alive because one has to be alive in order to experience freedom and the American Dream. What can be any more obvious or logical?

////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////

and you seem to be confusing rights with powers. the government, any government in the USA, has no 'rights'. they have powers assigned to them, not one of them details protecting the lives of it's citizens.

your tortured interpretation of the preamble and 'general welfare' clause is still wrong.


for someone who promotes themselves as some 'expert' on the constitution, you seem to be lacking historical knowledge. The war for independence was to throw off a central government that continually oppressed and abused them by claiming some 'right' to control every aspect of their lives.......for their own good, of course.

nobody is interpreting it in that way. you are the one making that ridiculous accusation with no evidence or basis of fact other than your own hyperbolic emotions.
 
According to valid Supreme Court precedent, McCullough v. Maryland, link---(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/McCulloch_v._Maryland) the Necessary and Proper Clause allows the government to pass laws that do not fall within the expressed powers so long as they are necessary and proper in order to execute the expressed powers. The Federal Government has the Constitutional authority to regulate the health insurance industry and, therefore, the authority to protect citizens, via regulation, from the discriminatory practice of denying coverage for pre-existing conditions. In order to deal with the very real issue of people, then, only purchasing insurance when they are sick, the mandate is put in place... this is a rational means to assist in achieving a legitimate end. The fact that the Federal Government does not have the expressed power to require an individual to engage in a commercial transaction with a private company is not the point. It does have the authority, under the Necessary and Proper Clause, to do so in order to execute it's legitimate protection of individuals from discriminatory practices by insurance companies.

I would also like to draw your attention to the following

http://www.forbes.com/sites/rickung...dicine-and-mandates-health-insurance-in-1798/

"In July of 1798, Congress passed – and President John Adams signed - “An Act for the Relief of Sick and Disabled Seamen.” The law authorized the creation of a government operated marine hospital service and mandated that privately employed sailors be required to purchase health care insurance.

Keep in mind that the 5th Congress did not really need to struggle over the intentions of the drafters of the Constitutions in creating this Act as many of its members were the drafters of the Constitution.

And when the Bill came to the desk of President John Adams for signature, I think it’s safe to assume that the man in that chair had a pretty good grasp on what the framers had in mind."

Exactly! :good4u: Some posters here think government medical is a nefarious, socialist plot first dreamed up by Obama. :lol:
 
Still, hundreds of thousands of people are dying every year, more than TWICE the number you are whining about, and the government does NOTHING to stop it. All they would have to do is outlaw tobacco products. Does the government not care that hundreds of thousands of people are dying every year from something they get money from taxing? Don't they have the same obligation you claimed they had with the 45k? Don't they want to save lives? Seems to me, the general welfare of the people isn't being served when hundreds of thousands are dying of something, and they won't do what they can to prevent it. You see, dimwit, it's your same exact argument, just applied to cigarettes....and it doesn't fly, even when the number is exponentially more, in terms of deaths.

Here's another one... how many millions of people die or ruin their lives with alcoholism? Shouldn't the government care enough about saving lives to do something about that? Why don't they ban alcohol? Oh yeah, they tried to save us from ourselves once before on that, how did it work out?

No one is forced to receive medical attention. There is no evidence any country with government medical forces its citizens to vist doctors.
 
I'm going to skip your outrageous diatribe about what the Tea Party or Michelle Bachmann would advocate, and we're going to talk about "general welfare" and what it means, according to the man who wrote it. You see, dimwit, the Founding Fathers debated the entire Constitution for years, mostly through a series of papers known as the Federalist Papers. In Federalist 41, Madison explains the "general welfare" clause:

For what purpose could the enumeration of particular powers be inserted, if these and all others were meant to be included in the preceding general power? Nothing is more natural nor common than first to use a general phrase, and then to explain and qualify it by a recital of particulars. But the idea of an enumeration of particulars which neither explain nor qualify the general meaning, and can have no other effect than to confound and mislead, is an absurdity, which, as we are reduced to the dilemma of charging either on the authors of the objection or on the authors of the Constitution, we must take the liberty of supposing, had not its origin with the latter....But what would have been thought of that assembly, if, attaching themselves to these general expressions, and disregarding the specifications which ascertain and limit their import, they had exercised an unlimited power of providing for the common defense and general welfare?

Since he is using language and parlance of the late 1700s, it is somewhat difficult to follow, but he is clearly saying the "general welfare" phrase, is followed by a specific enumeration to which it applies. Furthermore, he concludes you would have to be an absolute idiot to assume it means what Democrats currently claim it means.

Alexander Hamilton, the primary author of the Federalist papers, is responsible for the more expansive history that has pretty much been the default interpretation for all of American history. So, you have one author of the Federalist paper on your side. That's great. We have another author, and 200 years of precedent.




The SCOTUS has also upheld that black people were not citizens, but property, owned by their masters. It seems to me, the SCOTUS and what they may have ruled, is not the best barometer for what is intended in the Constitution.

Many founders also believed that black people were not citizens, but property, owned by their masters. It seems to me, that the founders are not the best barometer for what is intended in the constitution.

The opposite of stupidity is not intelligence. The SCOTUS made a bad ruling once. But the tradition of respecting SCOTUS interpretation of the constitution is, IMHO, every bit as important as the constitution itself. Without it, the branches would interpret on their own, and if they interpreted on their own, they would interpret to their caprice, as humans have a tendency to do. There is no freedom without stare decisis.



The Constitution does not mention gay marriage, or perverting religious traditions and customs for the sake of legitimizing a sexual lifestyle preference.

I suppose that if a man asks a girl if she wanted to have sex, and she says yes, then they can still try him for rape afterwards because she didn't specifically give him permission to stick his penis in her vagina. No, sticking the penis in the vagina is implicit in the request for sex. When the constitution says we protect all citizens equally, protecting gays and other minorities is implicit in that command.



Again, we can go to the Federalist Papers and find the "commerce clause" has been perverted from its original intent. This is why Constitutional Conservatives are upset with the power grab Obama has made, regarding nationalized health care.

Commerce clause /= general welfare clause.

In essence, your entire argument here is based on your totally false understandings and misconceptions of the Constitution. You want to stomp in the room and lay the law down, and insist you are the final arbiter on what is and isn't intended in the Constitution, and you just aren't.

Actually, I am the one showing deference to the cosntitutional tradition of the United States as it has existed for 200 years, while teabaggers and you are the ones claiming independent authority to throw all of that aside and interpret it to your convenience.

In fact, you are about the most clueless person on the planet, because you haven't bothered to read the Federalist Papers or try and understand what was envisioned. The Constitution lays the groundwork for a very LIMITED central government, with very LIMITED power, and most everything left to the people and the states.

Actually, the authority granted to the federal government under the constitution are pretty expansive. Many of the founders had a vision for a more expansive federal government than the one laid out in the constitution, but the clear intent of the constitutional convention was to fix the problem with the weak and powerless federal government established by the Articles of Confederation.

You see, while they were debating and arguing about a Constitution, the #1 biggest main concern the people of America had, was a fear of a tyrant government stealing their freedoms.

"On the other hand, it will be equally forgotten that the vigor of government is essential to the security of liberty; that, in the contemplation of a sound and well-informed judgment, their interest can never be separated; and that a dangerous ambition more often lurks behind the specious mask of zeal for the rights of the people than under the forbidden appearance of zeal for the firmness and efficiency of government. History will teach us that the former has been found a much more certain road to the introduction of despotism than the latter, and that of those men who have overturned the liberties of republics, the greatest number have begun their career by paying an obsequious court to the people; commencing demagogues, and ending tyrants." - Alexander Hamilton, Federalist no. 1

I think this quote is especially meaningful in the context of the current demagogic teabaggers of our day.

So when these open-ended phrases came up in discussion, like "general welfare" or "common good" etc., people naturally wanted some clarification on just what the hell that meant, and the founders painstakingly explained it. As Madison so aptly put it, it would be silly and foolish to think that the general welfare clause granted Congress the authority to do anything it damn well pleased in the name of "general welfare." IF that had been the original intent, there would have been no need for a Constitution. We could have simply said, Congress has the power to do whatever they want, as long as it's for what they determine is our general welfare... does that make any logical sense at all to you?

The general welfare clause only gives the government the power to spend tax money for the general welfare, it does not give the government general power otherwise.
 
According to valid Supreme Court precedent, McCullough v. Maryland, link---(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/McCulloch_v._Maryland) the Necessary and Proper Clause allows the government to pass laws that do not fall within the expressed powers so long as they are necessary and proper in order to execute the expressed powers. The Federal Government has the Constitutional authority to regulate the health insurance industry and, therefore, the authority to protect citizens, via regulation, from the discriminatory practice of denying coverage for pre-existing conditions. In order to deal with the very real issue of people, then, only purchasing insurance when they are sick, the mandate is put in place... this is a rational means to assist in achieving a legitimate end. The fact that the Federal Government does not have the expressed power to require an individual to engage in a commercial transaction with a private company is not the point. It does have the authority, under the Necessary and Proper Clause, to do so in order to execute it's legitimate protection of individuals from discriminatory practices by insurance companies.

I would also like to draw your attention to the following

http://www.forbes.com/sites/rickung...dicine-and-mandates-health-insurance-in-1798/

"In July of 1798, Congress passed – and President John Adams signed - “An Act for the Relief of Sick and Disabled Seamen.” The law authorized the creation of a government operated marine hospital service and mandated that privately employed sailors be required to purchase health care insurance.

Keep in mind that the 5th Congress did not really need to struggle over the intentions of the drafters of the Constitutions in creating this Act as many of its members were the drafters of the Constitution.

And when the Bill came to the desk of President John Adams for signature, I think it’s safe to assume that the man in that chair had a pretty good grasp on what the framers had in mind."
and i'm sure this wasn't the last time that the federal government felt they could ignore the constitution in order to expand their power.
 
and i'm sure this wasn't the last time that the federal government felt they could ignore the constitution in order to expand their power.

So then the question becomes-----What part of the constitution prohibits it? Note, I'm not asking if it's an enumerated power - it isn't, in my opinion, but I'm asking what in the constitution prohibits it? I'm referring to forbidding by legal authority. For instance, the 1st Amendment prohibits the government from passing a law infringing upon freedom of speech. Yes, all powers not enumerated are reserved to the States and the people respectively, but I don't think you could argue that the 10th Amendment was intended to invalidate the Necessary and Proper Clause which does allow the government to enact laws that go beyond the enumerated powers in certain circumstances. However, Congress can't use the Necessary and Proper Clause to do something that is prohibited by the Constitution. So, I ask you again... where does it prohibit this?

FOr example, states require drivers to enter into a contract for auto insurance even if they are unwilling. If the Necessary and Proper Clause allows the government - in the limited manner that the Clause allows - to do things that the States might otherwise be able to do - and I see no reason why that shouldn't be the case, then if the States can require that a citizen be an unwilling participant to a contract, why can't the Federal government do so in this instance?
 
So then the question becomes-----What part of the constitution prohibits it? Note, I'm not asking if it's an enumerated power - it isn't, in my opinion, but I'm asking what in the constitution prohibits it? I'm referring to forbidding by legal authority. For instance, the 1st Amendment prohibits the government from passing a law infringing upon freedom of speech. Yes, all powers not enumerated are reserved to the States and the people respectively, but I don't think you could argue that the 10th Amendment was intended to invalidate the Necessary and Proper Clause which does allow the government to enact laws that go beyond the enumerated powers in certain circumstances. However, Congress can't use the Necessary and Proper Clause to do something that is prohibited by the Constitution. So, I ask you again... where does it prohibit this?

FOr example, states require drivers to enter into a contract for auto insurance even if they are unwilling. If the Necessary and Proper Clause allows the government - in the limited manner that the Clause allows - to do things that the States might otherwise be able to do - and I see no reason why that shouldn't be the case, then if the States can require that a citizen be an unwilling participant to a contract, why can't the Federal government do so in this instance?

Auto insurance is not mandatory unless you make the choice to operate a motor vehicle. If you choose to own a restaurant, there are certain health department regulations you must follow, you aren't required to follow these at home if you don't own a restaurant, it is only for people who choose to own one. With health care insurance, you don't have a choice.

The ridiculous argument that the "necessary and proper" clause, somehow grants government the authority to do things not in the Constitution, doesn't apply, because it doesn't give them the authority to do things which violate the Constitution. You ask, well how does a mandate to purchase insurance do this? That is simple... money is property, it belongs to you. The 4th amendment prohibits unreasonable seizure of your property.
 
So then the question becomes-----What part of the constitution prohibits it? Note, I'm not asking if it's an enumerated power - it isn't, in my opinion, but I'm asking what in the constitution prohibits it? I'm referring to forbidding by legal authority. For instance, the 1st Amendment prohibits the government from passing a law infringing upon freedom of speech. Yes, all powers not enumerated are reserved to the States and the people respectively, but I don't think you could argue that the 10th Amendment was intended to invalidate the Necessary and Proper Clause which does allow the government to enact laws that go beyond the enumerated powers in certain circumstances. However, Congress can't use the Necessary and Proper Clause to do something that is prohibited by the Constitution. So, I ask you again... where does it prohibit this?
I think you're misinterpreting the necessary and proper clause. N & P lets the gov enact laws that are necessary to use their assigned powers.

The Congress shall have Power - To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any Department or Officer there of.

So, if a law they enact claiming N&P doesn't have one of it's enumerated powers as it's basis, then the law is null and void.

Also, the reversal of constitutional power is troubling. the constitution was written to create the gov with certain powers. anything not given to the feds, was prohibited. So the 10th doesn't invalidate the N & P, but prohibits any law that doesn't have the enumerated powers as it's origin.

FOr example, states require drivers to enter into a contract for auto insurance even if they are unwilling. If the Necessary and Proper Clause allows the government - in the limited manner that the Clause allows - to do things that the States might otherwise be able to do - and I see no reason why that shouldn't be the case, then if the States can require that a citizen be an unwilling participant to a contract, why can't the Federal government do so in this instance?
the N&P doesn't allow the feds to mandate auto insurance. the feds extorted the states to mandate auto insurance by withholding highway fundage for any state that didn't mandate it. the USSC legitimized this because of the assigned spending power of congress.
 
It's not a ridiculous accusation. People are saying the government has no authority to implement health care and that is resulting in 45,000 deaths each year. Some posters are saying the founding fathers never intended for the government to provide health care. How else can that be interpreted other than those posters believing the founding fathers didn't give a damn if citizens died?

Health care wasn't specifically mentioned as there wasn't any health care to mention over 200 years ago. However, the Preamble "states in general terms, and courts have referred to it as reliable evidence of, the Founding Fathers' intentions regarding the Constitution's meaning and what they hoped the Constitution would achieve." If the purpose of the constitution was to offer the people a better life what is more basic than health?

Some posters have said the government's "goal" was/is to offer freedom and the ability to realize the "American Dream". Isn't health the first requirement? If the goal of government is to do all it can to aid freedom and the ability to realize the American Dream then it follows the goal of government is to help people stay alive because one has to be alive in order to experience freedom and the American Dream. What can be any more obvious or logical?

////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////

That 45,000 deaths each year is only in the imagination of the source of that number. I've heard that before and it can't be proven. You can't prove it and the source can't prove it. It's nothing but another scare tactic by the left.

We have been a nation for well over 200 years. So how many people has this nation allowed to die because we didn't have health care? Crazy.

How many people has America allowed to die because of car accidents? Why didn't we have a better system on our dangerous roads turning people into road kill? Well? How could you allow that to happen?

No one gets turned away who needs it. You guys sit around and think up this shit to make people believe we have to have this shit to ease the imaginary need. Read my sig.
 
Last edited:
Auto insurance is not mandatory unless you make the choice to operate a motor vehicle. If you choose to own a restaurant, there are certain health department regulations you must follow, you aren't required to follow these at home if you don't own a restaurant, it is only for people who choose to own one. With health care insurance, you don't have a choice.

The ridiculous argument that the "necessary and proper" clause, somehow grants government the authority to do things not in the Constitution, doesn't apply, because it doesn't give them the authority to do things which violate the Constitution. You ask, well how does a mandate to purchase insurance do this? That is simple... money is property, it belongs to you. The 4th amendment prohibits unreasonable seizure of your property.

Dixie simple questions, Show me the case that states the federal government does not have the constitutional authority to regulate the health care industry. What prohibits the Federal Government from creating this mandate in furtherance of the legitimate ends under the Commerce Clause? The current plan, as it relates to the mandate, is intended to reduce the cost of health care and eliminate denial of coverage for pre-existing conditions. These ends are definitely within the scope of Congress' Constitutional authority under the Commerce Clause. Now, you can certainly question the wisdom of trying to achieve both these things at the same time in the manner it is currently being attempted in order to achieve these legitimate ends in the Act, the mandate is essential. The Necessary and Proper Clause allows the Federal Government to enact laws that go beyond the enumerated powers if it is essential to achieving a legitimate end.
 
I think you're misinterpreting the necessary and proper clause. N & P lets the gov enact laws that are necessary to use their assigned powers.

The Congress shall have Power - To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any Department or Officer there of.

So, if a law they enact claiming N&P doesn't have one of it's enumerated powers as it's basis, then the law is null and void.

Also, the reversal of constitutional power is troubling. the constitution was written to create the gov with certain powers. anything not given to the feds, was prohibited. So the 10th doesn't invalidate the N & P, but prohibits any law that doesn't have the enumerated powers as it's origin. the N&P doesn't allow the feds to mandate auto insurance. the feds extorted the states to mandate auto insurance by withholding highway fundage for any state that didn't mandate it. the USSC legitimized this because of the assigned spending power of congress.

The 10th Amendment states who has all these powers that aren't enumerated in the Constitution, but the 10th Amendment is not what limits the Federal Government to the enumerated powers.

In fact the Supreme Court had this to say about it:

"It added nothing to the instrument as originally ratified and has no limited and special operation"

http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=us&vol=282&invol=716
The 10th Amendment simply does not do what you said it does. The 10th Amendment does not prohibit or take away powers and it doesn't limit the Federal Government to the enumerated powers, the structure of the Constitution does that. So, you can stop attempting to somehow make your answer correct... it just isn't. So, what prohibits the Federal Government from creating this mandate in furtherance of the legitimate ends under the Commerce Clause. The Necessary and Proper Clause is intended to allow actions in support of other actions.

Re-read the Necessary and Proper Clause. The law in question need only be necessary in order for another law that is within the scope of constitutional authority to work. "Where Congress has the authority to enact a regulation of interstate commerce," - which here would be the prohibition on denying coverage for pre-existing conditions, "'it possesses every power necessary to make that regulation effective.'" - Scalia, concurring in Gonzales v. Raich.The mandate is necessary in order to make a ban on denying coverage for pre-existing conditions effective - an expression of power well within the scope of constitutional authority. As such, according to Supreme Court interpretation of the Necessary and Proper Clause, the mandate is constitutional. If the mandate wasn't necessary in order to make that regulation effective, it would have been severable. The regulation in question here will not be effective without the mandate.
It should also be noted that the Founding Fathers would've had no problem forcing a private citizen to engage in private commerce. Able bodied males were required by law to join the militia and supply their own weapons for the job.
 
Last edited:
the N&P doesn't allow the feds to mandate auto insurance. the feds extorted the states to mandate auto insurance by withholding highway fundage for any state that didn't mandate it. the USSC legitimized this because of the assigned spending power of congress.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/McCarran-Ferguson_Act

http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/uscode15/usc_sec_15_00006701----000-.html

However, The Federal government can regulate the health insurance industry.

The McCarran–Ferguson Act, 15 U.S.C. §§ 1011-1015, is a United States federal law that exempts the business of insurance from most federal regulation, including federal anti-trust laws to a limited extent. The McCarran–Ferguson Act was passed by Congress in 1945 after the Supreme Court ruled in United States v. South-Eastern Underwriters Association that the federal government could regulate insurance companies under the authority of the Commerce Clause in the U.S. Constitution.

What are the aims of the regulation regarding pre-existing conditions? Are they not to prevent discrimination and to decrease the cost of health-care for individuals? Discrimination against patients and the cost of healthcare both can be legitimately regulated by Congress. Considering those aims, how is that regulation effective without the mandate?
 
Last edited:
The 10th Amendment states who has all these powers that aren't enumerated in the Constitution, but the 10th Amendment is not what limits the Federal Government to the enumerated powers.

In fact the Supreme Court had this to say about it:

"It added nothing to the instrument as originally ratified and has no limited and special operation"

http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=us&vol=282&invol=716
The 10th Amendment simply does not do what you said it does. The 10th Amendment does not prohibit or take away powers and it doesn't limit the Federal Government to the enumerated powers, the structure of the Constitution does that. So, you can stop attempting to somehow make your answer correct... it just isn't. So, what prohibits the Federal Government from creating this mandate in furtherance of the legitimate ends under the Commerce Clause. The Necessary and Proper Clause is intended to allow actions in support of other actions.
one would think that the structure of the constitution does indeed prohibit certain actions of the feds, however, we all know that this isn't true in reality. I don't have enough fingers to count the times that the feds and the courts ignored the constitution or the bill of rights to enact legislation that they wanted. My answer is correct, you just don't like it. that's fine, lots of other people don't like it either. Just like I don't like the answers of some others in constitutional discussions. What I can tell you with confidence is that the commerce clause wasn't intended to mandate the lives of the people, only to regulate commerce between the states. It wasn't until the slaughterhouse cases and wickard v. filburn that the courts decided 'interstate commerce' also meant 'intrastate commerce', which we all know is complete and total horseshit. But liberals and conservatives alike will gladly accept this premise because it allows them more power to control us.

Re-read the Necessary and Proper Clause. The law in question need only be necessary in order for another law that is within the scope of constitutional authority to work. "Where Congress has the authority to enact a regulation of interstate commerce," - which here would be the prohibition on denying coverage for pre-existing conditions, "'it possesses every power necessary to make that regulation effective.'" - Scalia, concurring in Gonzales v. Raich.The mandate is necessary in order to make a ban on denying coverage for pre-existing conditions effective - an expression of power well within the scope of constitutional authority. As such, according to Supreme Court interpretation of the Necessary and Proper Clause, the mandate is constitutional. If the mandate wasn't necessary in order to make that regulation effective, it would have been severable. The regulation in question here will not be effective without the mandate.
It should also be noted that the Founding Fathers would've had no problem forcing a private citizen to engage in private commerce. Able bodied males were required by law to join the militia and supply their own weapons for the job.
Quoting Scalia's concurrence in Raich does you no favors.

Justice Thomas gives a great dissenting opinion in Raich

"
Respondent's local cultivation and consumption of marijuana is not "Commerce ... among the several States."

Certainly no evidence from the founding suggests that "commerce" included the mere possession of a good or some personal activity that did not involve trade or exchange for value. In the early days of the Republic, it would have been unthinkable that Congress could prohibit the local cultivation, possession, and consumption of marijuana.


and


If the Federal Government can regulate growing a half-dozen cannabis plants for personal consumption (not because it is interstate commerce, but because it is inextricably bound up with interstate commerce), then Congress' Article I powers -- as expanded by the Necessary and Proper Clause -- have no meaningful limits. Whether Congress aims at the possession of drugs, guns, or any number of other items, it may continue to "appropria[te] state police powers under the guise of regulating commerce."


and further:


If the majority is to be taken seriously, the Federal Government may now regulate quilting bees, clothes drives, and potluck suppers throughout the 50 States. This makes a mockery of Madison's assurance to the people of New York that the "powers delegated" to the Federal Government are "few and defined", while those of the States are "numerous and indefinite."
 
Dixie simple questions, Show me the case that states the federal government does not have the constitutional authority to regulate the health care industry. What prohibits the Federal Government from creating this mandate in furtherance of the legitimate ends under the Commerce Clause? The current plan, as it relates to the mandate, is intended to reduce the cost of health care and eliminate denial of coverage for pre-existing conditions. These ends are definitely within the scope of Congress' Constitutional authority under the Commerce Clause. Now, you can certainly question the wisdom of trying to achieve both these things at the same time in the manner it is currently being attempted in order to achieve these legitimate ends in the Act, the mandate is essential. The Necessary and Proper Clause allows the Federal Government to enact laws that go beyond the enumerated powers if it is essential to achieving a legitimate end.

We have a long history of Supreme Court rulings and interpretations of the Commerce Clause and the N&P clause, and I believe, since the days of the New Deal, those interpretations have wrongly broadened federal governmental powers. So there are actually two arguments here, is it constitutional and legal by the current interpretations of the courts, and is it constitutional by the intended meaning of the founders? It can be one without being the other, and that is probably the case here, we haven't had the SCOTUS hearing on it yet.

Regulation is not mandate. There are countless SCOTUS rulings upholding the argument that federal government can NOT mandate an individual to purchase ANY product. Again, the 4th Amendment is very clear on this, The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated. While most of us view this as a restriction against government illegally searching your property, it also prohibits government from illegally seizing your property... your money is your property. The only exception for this, is taxation, as far as the federal government is concerned. The states still maintain power under the 10th amendment, to make such mandates, providing the people agree.

The Necessary and Proper Clause allows the Federal Government to enact laws that go beyond the enumerated powers if it is essential to achieving a legitimate end.

This is false, they do not have authority to go beyond the enumerated powers for any reason. Here's the deal, if that were the case, there would be no need for the Constitution to enumerate powers to the federal government. What would be the logical purpose to outline specific powers, then have a clause which basically trashed that concept? It doesn't even make rational sense for this to be the case. It's like saying, you can ONLY do these things: A B C D E F G.... unless you feel like doing something else, then that's okay too!
 
We have a long history of Supreme Court rulings and interpretations of the Commerce Clause and the N&P clause, and I believe, since the days of the New Deal, those interpretations have wrongly broadened federal governmental powers. So there are actually two arguments here, is it constitutional and legal by the current interpretations of the courts, and is it constitutional by the intended meaning of the founders? It can be one without being the other, and that is probably the case here, we haven't had the SCOTUS hearing on it yet.

Regulation is not mandate. There are countless SCOTUS rulings upholding the argument that federal government can NOT mandate an individual to purchase ANY product. Again, the 4th Amendment is very clear on this, The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated. While most of us view this as a restriction against government illegally searching your property, it also prohibits government from illegally seizing your property... your money is your property. The only exception for this, is taxation, as far as the federal government is concerned. The states still maintain power under the 10th amendment, to make such mandates, providing the people agree. The Necessary and Proper Clause allows the Federal Government to enact laws that go beyond the enumerated powers if it is essential to achieving a legitimate end.

This is false, they do not have authority to go beyond the enumerated powers for any reason. Here's the deal, if that were the case, there would be no need for the Constitution to enumerate powers to the federal government. What would be the logical purpose to outline specific powers, then have a clause which basically trashed that concept? It doesn't even make rational sense for this to be the case. It's like saying, you can ONLY do these things: A B C D E F G.... unless you feel like doing something else, then that's okay too!

First I would like to thank Smarterthanyou for an excellent ,non-namecalling, structured, debate.:good4u:...

Now dixie, Are you saying that insurance companies denying coverage for pre-existing conditions does not substantially impact interstate commerce? The regulation can't be said to be effective if it doesn't reduce the cost of healthcare. Coverage was being denied for pre-existing conditions because people were getting funds from a system they hadn't paid into, which would increase the cost of healthcare for those in the system. In order to both make sure that patients aren't discriminated against and reduce the cost of healthcare, a mandate is necessary... not just convenient.

In order for the regulation - prohibiting denial of coverage for pre-existing conditions - to be effective, the mandate is necessary. The Necessary and Proper Clause allows the Federal Government to go beyond the scope of it's authority if doing so is necessary to make a particular legitimate regulation effective.

If all powers not enumerated are reserved to the States or to the people, and the Necessary and Proper Clause allows the government, in certain instances, to go beyond the enumerated powers, then, logically, the Necessary and Proper Clause, in that instance, allows the Federal Government to use a power reserved to the States or the people. I will restate again for Dixie--Health insurance is regulated by the States only to the extent that the Federal Government allows it to be regulated by the States via the McCarran-Ferguson Act of 1945 See this link http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/uscode15/usc_sec_15_00006701----000-.html


Also Dixie re-read http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/McCulloch_v._Maryland

The Court invoked the Necessary and Proper Clause of the Constitution, which allowed the Federal government to pass laws not expressly provided for in the Constitution's list of express powers, provided those laws are in useful furtherance of the express powers of Congress under the Constitution.
 
Last edited:
I never have understood the mandate to cover pre-existing conditions. If you are obtaining insurance to cover a condition that already exists, you aren't really purchasing 'insurance' are you? Insurance is supposed to 'insure' you are protected in case something happens, not pay for something that has already occurred. You can't wait until you have a car wreck, then call the insurance agent and buy insurance to cover your damages. You can't call and get fire insurance as your house burns to the ground... why should you be able to get health 'insurance' to cover some health condition that already exists? And if that IS the case, doesn't the insurance provider have to compensate for the unlimited liability by charging higher premiums?

What we have is, a bunch of emotive liberal Utopian dreamers, who expect "the government" to just provide everything our hearts desire, based on sheer emotion and ignorance of economics. You expect capitalists to not make profit, yet still risk their money to invest in business and create jobs. You expect wealthy people to forfeit most of their income, while continuing to go out there and earn incomes. You expect doctors and hospitals to work for free, because they love helping sick people. You expect the military to protect us from our enemies without any funding... And here, you expect insurance companies, who offer a product, to change the parameters of risk vs. cost, because you think it's possible to have everyone covered by insurance for every possible condition and every possible circumstance. Somehow, you have deduced that such an idea will bring down the cost of health care, even though, nothing has been done to even begin to address the cost of health care, and the measures you are implementing will drive up the cost of insurance to the point no one can afford it. Then, we'll have to depend on government to dispense health care.
 
And let's go back to original intent, with regard to the Commerce Clause... it was primarily to regulate navigation of waterways and such. It was to prevent, say, the State of Georgia from imposing a fee on Tennessee to use the Chattahoochee River to transport products to port. Or from the State of Missouri saying; "We don't need no stinking railroad running through our state!" It was intended to bring unity to the several states, with regard to our national interests. Over the years, it has been perverted and used in ways the founding fathers never intended.
 
Back
Top