Tranquillus in Exile
New member
Any Scot worth his porridge will tell you that England did not 'conquer' Scotland. (To be precise, England conquered Scotland briefly in the 1650s under Cromwell, then it left again.)
Scotland joined the Union voluntarily in 1707. It retained some features of a sovereign state, including its own legal system. English law did not replace Scottish law.
So why is the UK Supreme Court ruling on whether Scotland can hold a referendum without Westminster's consent? Because Scotland is in the United Kingdom. Which it joined voluntarily.
Sheesh.
P.S. Look up what happened to Catalonia when its leaders called an independence referendum without the consent of Madrid.
https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/world-europe-29478415
I would take a sizeable bet that in the worst case scenario Ms Sturgeon & Co will not be charged with treason.
Scotland joined the Union voluntarily in 1707. It retained some features of a sovereign state, including its own legal system. English law did not replace Scottish law.
So why is the UK Supreme Court ruling on whether Scotland can hold a referendum without Westminster's consent? Because Scotland is in the United Kingdom. Which it joined voluntarily.
Sheesh.
P.S. Look up what happened to Catalonia when its leaders called an independence referendum without the consent of Madrid.
https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/world-europe-29478415
I would take a sizeable bet that in the worst case scenario Ms Sturgeon & Co will not be charged with treason.
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