I want $10,000 dollars, Dixie

FUCK THE POLICE

911 EVERY DAY
Here it is in modern three modern translations:

TNIV
Luke 6:31

31 Do to others as you would have them do to you.


New International Reader's Version
Luke 6:31

31 Do to others as you want them to do to you.



A slightly older translation has your exact wording:


New International Version
Luke 6:31

31Do unto others as you would have them do unto you.



All these translations are more legitimate than the King James version, as they have the benefit of more recently uncovered texts that are closer to whenever the bible were written, have people far more versed in linguistics, and, more importantly, they're modern.

I think I've pretty much proven my point. I want $10,000 bucks.
 
"Do unto others as you would have them do unto you." - Jesus (ca. 5 BCE—33 CE) in the Gospels,Luke 6:31;Luke 10:27 (affirming of Moses);Matthew 7:12;

Dang, it's actually in three different books in the bible, in that exact wording, and a simaialar wording is in the old testament numerous times.

http://tinyurl.com/qqram
 
To show you the ridiculousness of what your asking, I translated English to Greek (the language we get most of the passeges of the bible from) and then translated it back to English:

Make unto other since them you would have make unto you

That's the literal Greek translation.

And just to make things interesting, here's the same process with dutch:

Do unto other since you them unto to do you

French:

Make with other because would make you make them with you

German:

DO unto OTHER as you would have them DO unto you
 
Here's how it was originally written, whenever the first person tranlated it from Hebrew to Greek:

Καθώς θέλετε ίνα ποιώσιν υμίν οι άνθρωποι και υμείς ποιείτε αυτοίς ομοίως.

We don't have the original Hebrew version, asking me to go back to that would be ludicrous.

http://tinyurl.com/oe45w
 
watermark you just fell into his trap now he is going to blast you with his REAL argument that has been lying in wait.. just watch.
 
Now Dixie...

None of the above have anything to do with "Do unto other as you would have them do unto you"? Even the ones that do? The "real" writers of the bible DID fail to write "do unto other as you would have them do unto you" in that space, actually, being as that they wrote it in Hebrew.
 
So if you stretch it to such a stupid extent you'd be right. And it'd be ridiculous to even ask us this, sense your entire point would be irrelevant, equivalant to me asking you to find the exact phrase "Harry Potter worships satan" in a German translation of a speech written by a member of the theocratic right.
 
1. "Translations" of the Golden Rule are not eligible, sorry.
2. Weird-ass Pinhead Bibles that no one has heard of, are not eligible, sorry.
3. Greek and Hebrew translations do not apply, sorry.

No prize for Waterhead, soooorry.
 
WTF are you talking about?

The bible wasn't TRANSLATED to fucking Hebrew! It was wrtten in it, you dumbass. It was then translated to Greek, and these are the oldest copies we have available today. The King James version is outdated and innacurate, and each of the translations I mentioned are better translations, and more importantly, are more modern. The authors of the bible never wrote "Do unto others as you would have them do unto you". To say so would be assanine. The English language didn't exist back then. The quote in any translation is very obviously referencing the Golden rule in any case.
 
Also, "Do unto others as you would have them do unto you" is a translation. The "original" was probably written in Chinese.

Just admit it. You're being a dumbass.
 
The NIV, New Living Translation... etc... are all used by modern denominations. Only the most backward redneck churches still use the King James version, which practically wasn't written in modern English. It is also a tranlation, just like any other translation. The words mean the SAME FUCKING THING. God you're a dumbass.
 
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