And I have shown that the "form" your logic took was a match to the definition of the specific fallacy that I even linked you up to. It's not that difficult.I don't squirm, Damo....
I have explained how fallacy refers to the form of the logic used.
If the form of inductive logic is correct, it isn't a fallacy, no matter how unsound.
There is argument by generalisation (though this is a simplification of the term 'induction') but that doesn't make it a logical fallacy. People wrongly use the term fallacy to mean any argument considered unsound.
Inductive logic is:
An inductive logic is a system of reasoning that extends deductive logic to less-than-certain inferences. In a valid deductive argument the premises logically entail the conclusion, where such entailment means that the truth of the premises provides a guarantee of the truth of the conclusion. Similarly, in a good inductive argument the premises should provide some degree of support for the conclusion, where such support means that the truth of the premises indicates with some degree of strength that the conclusion is true. Presumably, if the logic of good inductive arguments is to be of any real value, the measure of support it articulates should meet the following condition:
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/logic-inductive/
"I don't squirm" seems to be very much squirming right now.
Once again. Much like in real life, things can fit more than one definition. One can both use poor inductive reasoning and a logical fallacy in one statement. You did. Attempting to say, "Hey! I used inductive reasoning and therefore it cannot be a fallacy." is just a weak attempt to squirm out of the fact that you are using fallacious logic in your flawed inductive reasoning.