Wrong; it showed a 13% reduction was UNcorrelated to the fact that they were smoking marijuana; but rather, for behavioral reasons associated with smoking marijuana. Ie. There are no marijuana bars so you are LESS likely to drive as a result.
The false premise is that fewer traffic fatalities was due to the legalization.
It was the latter; but it has NOTHING to do with driving under the influence which is the premise of this thread; but rather BEHAVIOR differences due to there not being marijuana bars.
Impairment is impairment and having done both, I can verify that I was not LESS impaired when I smoked marijuana than when I drank. But I did stay in the house as a result of it being something you don't buy at a bar.
Once again you fail to distinguish between causal correlation and coincidence. But I am not surprised. You're really not too bright which is why you made the false premise in the first place.
Here’s a clue for the clueless; a better study would have been a controlled test with half the drivers under the influence of alcohol, and the other half under marijuana and then track the results and report them. Saying that there were fewer traffic fatalities due to legalized marijuana from coincidental data is moronic, not to mention false.