Logic Quiz

On the drug question we are to use the two logical statements to determine. One they get better, the other is opposite. How is it false? Only one i missed
 
Imp link=topic=68850.msg4625138#msg4625138 date=1379805016 said:
kaijyuu link=topic=68850.msg4624561#msg4624561 date=1379794263 said:
Premises:
Whenever Drug Y is administered, the patient gets better.
Whenever Drug Y is not administered, the patient does not get better.

Conclusion:
Drug Y causes the patient to get better.

Supposed correct answer:
False.

I believe it is true. The test is claiming I'm using a correlation = causation fallacy, but I'm not given the wording of the premises. If we assume the premises are 100% true, then in no situation can the patient get better without taking the drug. And in every situation the drug is taken, the patient gets better. This means without a doubt that the drug causes them to get better, even if it's indirectly so as a catalyst for something else.

Inductive reasoning, bitches. It works.

I hope I can explain why with 'logic' and the specific wording, the answer should be false.

Keep in mind, with logic you look purely at the sentence structure and definitions given, without any added information. That added information is something of a cognative bias - remember that in logic puzzles such as this, you can replace the details with anything, and if you're doing it right, you'll still have the same answers.

In this case, the details are 'drug Y is/is not administered' and 'the patient gets better/does not get better'.

Whenever A, B.
Whenever not A, not B.
A causes B.
- this is false.

Here's a few (hopefully more) clear examples of why this logic does not follow -

Whenever someone wakes up, they want to relieve their bladder.
Whenever someone doesn't wake up, they don't want to relieve their bladder.
Waking up causes someone to want to relieve their bladder.
(Sleeping, someone wants to stay asleep. A full bladder may wake a person, but the bladder did not fill because someone woke up)

Whenever a Catholic is given last rites, the person dies soon from an expected cause.
Whenever a Catholic is not given last rites, the person does not die soon from an expected cause.
Giving a Catholic last rights causes the person to die soon from an expected cause.
(Last rites, if given, are a reaction to the observed process of dying. This process is independent of the last rights, and withholding them when they would be given cannot save a life, nor will giving them to a person not about to die cause their death)

Using A as giving a drug or not and B as getting better or not is especially entrapping in this form of logic test - humans DEEPLY believe in the power of drugs to cure... to the point of making placebos work.
.

I guess I should explain, Tom I totally stole the link and reposted it.
 
ouch! I fell for it. I thought it was a trick question. I first thought correlation does not equal causation, but then I thought that was too obvious and they were tricking me. I assumed I was to use ONLY the statements to determine and thuis I felt they may want me to check true. LOL I'm a dumbass. I talked myself outa that one
 
ouch! I fell for it. I thought it was a trick question. I first thought correlation does not equal causation, but then I thought that was too obvious and they were tricking me. I assumed I was to use ONLY the statements to determine and thuis I felt they may want me to check true. LOL I'm a dumbass. I talked myself outa that one
I used to do that when I was an undergrad in exams. I learned not to do that when I was studying for the MCAT. First instincts are almost always right. That served me well in grad school when taking an exam. If you weren't absolutely sure about an answer.....go with your strongest feeling.
 
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