the interpretation of the commerce clause in this way literally gives the federal government total control and power over people and the states. With wickard allowing the feds to determine how much of anything that a person can grow or sell, to gonzales allowing the feds control over what a person can and cannot possess, and if this is upheld, allowing congress to control what a person can or cannot choose to purchase. Now, i'm sure that most everyone here thinks i'm a radial nutcase, but i'm pretty damned sure that the framers that wrote the constitution (along with all of the documenation and commentaries) and we the people that ratified it, did not give the federal government that much power. someone prove me wrong.