Question for our gun enthusiast friends.

This shows your complete lack of knowledge of the Constitution.
Actually, he knows it far more than you do.
You are right, it originally only restricted the states.
The 1st amendment is not applicable to the States. The 2nd through 9th amendments are. They always were.
You can't stop there--you have to look at history.
You have looked at neither the Constitution of the United States nor history. You also don't recognize the authority of the Constitution of the United States.
Check out Gitlow v. NY (1925) and you will learn that the court made free speech applicable to the states. If you don't know this case you know nothing about the Bill of Rights.
No court has the authority to change the Constitution. This ruling is unconstitutional.
How do you think the Supreme Court was able to strike down state laws requiring a pledge of allegiance even for those with religious objections or required school prayer or many other state laws?
By breaking the law.
It is because freedom of religion and establishment of religion were made applicable to the states through the incorporation process.
Nope. No court has the authority to change the Constitution. It cannot grant itself to change the Constitution either.
You are unwilling to educate yourself.
Inversion fallacy.
 
You do not present any counter arguments.
Actually, he did. Argument of the stone.
You just continue to make the same false claims about the Constitution that everyone knows are untrue.
No, he has read the Constitution, just as I have.
--claiming there is no incorporation process,
No court has the authority to change the Constitution. Your 'incorporation process' never happened. Amendments 2 through 9 already apply to the States. Amendment 1 does not apply to the States.
that all searches require warrants,
They do.
that courts do not interpret the Constitution.
They can't, legally.
If you do not even know basic history
Inversion fallacy.
The ONLY law in question here is the Constitution. It is the ONLY authoritative reference on what is in the Constitution.
it doesn't matter what kind of logical fallacy you label something, you are still wrong.
Denying logic does not make it go away.
 
I thought so-all their answers were the same.
No, we just use the same references. Logic is the same no matter who uses it. The Constitution is the same no matter who reads it. He is in Wisconsin, I am in the Seattle area.
I think he may be the guy who claimed "jury nullification" is the method to overturn unconstitutional laws.
Never did.
Why do people pretend to be two people?
We ARE two different people. We're just using the same references. They do not change.
 
No, we just use the same references. Logic is the same no matter who uses it. The Constitution is the same no matter who reads it. He is in Wisconsin, I am in the Seattle area.

We thought you were the same person because we didn't think two people would not know searches can be made without a warrant or not know about incorporation. :)
 
gfm7175 and Into the Night are the same person

The thought of our two user names being attached to the same person really burns your grits, don't it Gomer?

We aren't the same person, of course, since we live half way across the country from each other, are at much different stages of our lives, and have different hobbies/interests, but don't let our vastly different identities get in the way of your beautiful mind...

:seenoevil::hearnoevil: They both take the US Constitution literally... They MUST be the same person! :seenoevil::hearnoevil:

:good4u:
 
Ah...let 'em plug his ears. It only means he can't see what you say about him now.

Nor can he offer up a direct response to what I say about him now. I'm perfectly fine with that. ;)

The funny part is that he can still see our comments whenever someone else quotes our comments, so even "ignoring" us doesn't completely remove our comments from his sight. We still stay rent free in his head, all the while he has made it harder on himself to directly respond to us. His loss...
 
I thought so-all their answers were the same.
Except for all the parts where they were different, of course...

I think he may be the guy who claimed "jury nullification" is the method to overturn unconstitutional laws.
I didn't say "jury nullification"... but yes, I was the one pondering that there is nothing compelling a State to adhere to federal laws which are unconstitutional. You mentioned Article 6 Paragraph 2, then I told you to re-read it (to catch that little bit which says "...which shall be made in Pursuance thereof..."

Why do people pretend to be two people?
Beats me...
 
I realized it when both personas answered my posts in exactly the same way.
Except the parts which were answered differently, of course...

They would break down each sentence and respond to it individually.
Yes, we both share that same style of responding to posts. We like to break down posts by individual argument so that each argument gets addressed.

With identical language.
Yes, the language will be similar, since we are both making use of the same source, the US Constitution.

I think they do it because they make it appear that more than one person is attacking one’s premise.
More than just us two have attacked your arguments, Gomer...

They can also give themselves a “thanks”.
We rarely "thank" each other. There really isn't much point. I will sometimes "thank" a post which I agree with and that gives me a good laugh, but other than that there isn't really much rhyme or reason as to which posts I "thank".
 
This shows your complete lack of knowledge of the Constitution.
I don't know it perfectly by any means, but I do know it quite well. YOU, on the other hand, don't know it at all it seems...

You are right, it originally only restricted the states.
You've completely lost context here. I've never asserted that the 1st Amendment restricted the States; YOU are the one who asserted that, and asserts that again in a little bit here. I've simply directed you to the clear cut language of the 1st Amendment which specifically addresses Congress. Congress is NOT the States.

You can't stop there--
Yes, I can.

you have to look at history.
No, YOU do.

Check out Gitlow v. NY (1925)
I am aware of the ruling. It was unconstitutional.

and you will learn that the court made free speech applicable to the states.
Unconstitutionally. They had to change the Constitution in order to arrive at that particular ruling. SCOTUS does not have the authority to change the Constitution.

If you don't know this case you know nothing about the Bill of Rights.
Your conclusion doesn't follow.

How do you think the Supreme Court was able to strike down state laws requiring a pledge of allegiance even for those with religious objections or required school prayer or many other state laws?
The same way that a murderer murders, a thief steals, a speeder speeds, a druggie drives under the influence, etc...

It is because freedom of religion and establishment of religion were made applicable to the states through the incorporation process.
Nope.

You are unwilling to educate yourself.
Inversion Fallacy.
 
Yes, the language will be similar, since we are both making use of the same source, the US Constitution.

But you both chose to leave out the same provisions of the Constitution such as the words "unreasonable" searches and misinterpreted that to mean all searches without a warrant are illegal and neither knowing about incorporation.
 
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