Into the Night
Verified User
I can't see you!!!
I can't hear you!!!
Gomers just never learn, do they?![]()
Ah...let 'em plug his ears. It only means he can't see what you say about him now.
I can't see you!!!
I can't hear you!!!
Gomers just never learn, do they?![]()
Actually, he knows it far more than you do.This shows your complete lack of knowledge of the Constitution.
The 1st amendment is not applicable to the States. The 2nd through 9th amendments are. They always were.You are right, it originally only restricted the states.
You have looked at neither the Constitution of the United States nor history. You also don't recognize the authority of the Constitution of the United States.You can't stop there--you have to look at history.
No court has the authority to change the Constitution. This ruling is unconstitutional.Check out Gitlow v. NY (1925) and you will learn that the court made free speech applicable to the states. If you don't know this case you know nothing about the Bill of Rights.
By breaking the law.How do you think the Supreme Court was able to strike down state laws requiring a pledge of allegiance even for those with religious objections or required school prayer or many other state laws?
Nope. No court has the authority to change the Constitution. It cannot grant itself to change the Constitution either.It is because freedom of religion and establishment of religion were made applicable to the states through the incorporation process.
Inversion fallacy.You are unwilling to educate yourself.
Actually, he did. Argument of the stone.You do not present any counter arguments.
No, he has read the Constitution, just as I have.You just continue to make the same false claims about the Constitution that everyone knows are untrue.
No court has the authority to change the Constitution. Your 'incorporation process' never happened. Amendments 2 through 9 already apply to the States. Amendment 1 does not apply to the States.--claiming there is no incorporation process,
They do.that all searches require warrants,
They can't, legally.that courts do not interpret the Constitution.
Inversion fallacy.If you do not even know basic history
The ONLY law in question here is the Constitution. It is the ONLY authoritative reference on what is in the Constitution.and law
Denying logic does not make it go away.it doesn't matter what kind of logical fallacy you label something, you are still wrong.
gfm7175 and Into the Night are the same person
No, we just use the same references. Logic is the same no matter who uses it. The Constitution is the same no matter who reads it. He is in Wisconsin, I am in the Seattle area.I thought so-all their answers were the same.
Never did.I think he may be the guy who claimed "jury nullification" is the method to overturn unconstitutional laws.
We ARE two different people. We're just using the same references. They do not change.Why do people pretend to be two people?
I wonder what part of “ignore” an illiterate dumbfuck does not understand?
No, we just use the same references. Logic is the same no matter who uses it. The Constitution is the same no matter who reads it. He is in Wisconsin, I am in the Seattle area.
gfm7175 and Into the Night are the same person
Ah...let 'em plug his ears. It only means he can't see what you say about him now.
Except for all the parts where they were different, of course...I thought so-all their answers were the same.
I didn't say "jury nullification"... but yes, I was the one pondering that there is nothing compelling a State to adhere to federal laws which are unconstitutional. You mentioned Article 6 Paragraph 2, then I told you to re-read it (to catch that little bit which says "...which shall be made in Pursuance thereof..."I think he may be the guy who claimed "jury nullification" is the method to overturn unconstitutional laws.
Beats me...Why do people pretend to be two people?
Except the parts which were answered differently, of course...I realized it when both personas answered my posts in exactly the same way.
Yes, we both share that same style of responding to posts. We like to break down posts by individual argument so that each argument gets addressed.They would break down each sentence and respond to it individually.
Yes, the language will be similar, since we are both making use of the same source, the US Constitution.With identical language.
More than just us two have attacked your arguments, Gomer...I think they do it because they make it appear that more than one person is attacking one’s premise.
We rarely "thank" each other. There really isn't much point. I will sometimes "thank" a post which I agree with and that gives me a good laugh, but other than that there isn't really much rhyme or reason as to which posts I "thank".They can also give themselves a “thanks”.
Both are on my ignore list.
Except for all the parts where they were different, of course...
I don't know it perfectly by any means, but I do know it quite well. YOU, on the other hand, don't know it at all it seems...This shows your complete lack of knowledge of the Constitution.
You've completely lost context here. I've never asserted that the 1st Amendment restricted the States; YOU are the one who asserted that, and asserts that again in a little bit here. I've simply directed you to the clear cut language of the 1st Amendment which specifically addresses Congress. Congress is NOT the States.You are right, it originally only restricted the states.
Yes, I can.You can't stop there--
No, YOU do.you have to look at history.
I am aware of the ruling. It was unconstitutional.Check out Gitlow v. NY (1925)
Unconstitutionally. They had to change the Constitution in order to arrive at that particular ruling. SCOTUS does not have the authority to change the Constitution.and you will learn that the court made free speech applicable to the states.
Your conclusion doesn't follow.If you don't know this case you know nothing about the Bill of Rights.
The same way that a murderer murders, a thief steals, a speeder speeds, a druggie drives under the influence, etc...How do you think the Supreme Court was able to strike down state laws requiring a pledge of allegiance even for those with religious objections or required school prayer or many other state laws?
Nope.It is because freedom of religion and establishment of religion were made applicable to the states through the incorporation process.
Inversion Fallacy.You are unwilling to educate yourself.
gfm7175 and Into the Night are the same person
Yes, the language will be similar, since we are both making use of the same source, the US Constitution.