it was unavoidable in dealing with your ridiculous attempt to create a parallel...
simply that your parallel was stupid....no one is proposing redefining society's understanding of the meaning of "selling" a house....
You are dropping context, in a obvious attempt to evade the point. I never mentioned anyone redefining definitions of selling a house. It has nothing to do with that.
You claim that you are compelled to agree with homosexual marriage by not being allowed to ignore their contractual arrangement. You are not able to ignore anyone's contractual arrangements nor are you compelled to agree with them.
the simple fact is, there is no logical basis for redefining "marriage" at all.....
Sure there is. Everyone has the right to choose who they wish to marry. It's an extremely personal and private matter and the state should not interfere with it any further than ensuring that both have the capacity to consent (i.e., no 12 year olds, as was allowed before we "redefined" marriage)
no one has ever proposed to deny those rights.....
Of course, they have.
the definition of "marriage" is not a religious definition.....it's a societal one....
This line of argument which religious nuts use to pretend their demands for theocratic laws is actually secular, is just bullshit. Obviously, our culture has been shaped by Christianity. Traditions concerning marriage are heavily influenced by religion. But just because something is does not mean it should be. We should question the basis of our traditions. What other basis is their for denying homosexuals fully equal rights in choosing a spouse/partner?
obviously, they would be compelled to provide spousal benefits for a homosexual couple if they did for a heterosexual couple, regardless of their beliefs regarding the normality of the "marriage".....
Just as they are compelled to provide spousal benefits for quickie marriages, open marriages, interracial marriages or any other form of marriage they might not agree with.
are you blind to the fact that it is the exact opposite?......a man and a man can have contractual arrangements between themselves already, and nothing in the law changes that.....what's involved, is that the gay couple wishes to have their contractual arrangement effect (interfere) with the government
With what legitimate state action does marriage interfere with?
given the fact we've been talking about a concrete example of just that for nearly two pages, it is pointless for you to try to deny it.....
You have no example of that. Laws that require benefits for married couples are a separate issue. Again, I don't like the government interfering between an employer and an employee, but, obviously, that relationship is much less intimate and private than one between a married couple. Therefore, it is not deserving of the same sort of high level of protections from government interference. Or, at least, I am more willing to suffer the interference in the employee-employer relationship than interference in a romantic relationship.