Into the Night
Verified User
So wordy but at the exact same time so incomprehensibly lazy.
So wordy but at the exact same time so incomprehensibly lazy.
The universe exists.
The Theory of the Big Bang is not a theory of science, just as the Theory of the Continuum (the universe has always existed and always will).
From our local position, we do observe a so-called 'red shift' of galaxies as they move away from us, but even if they are, our little corner of the universe has nothing do with anywhere else that so far has not been observed.
No boundary of the universe has ever been observed.
Assuming said priest (Lemaître) is proposing a theory that is actually True, where was God before the Big Bang? If He was outside the universe, then the 'universe' isn't the universe. It is not universal.
If God was part of the Big Bang, that directly conflicts with the numerous descriptions of Him being from everlasting to everlasting.
So what Lemaître proposed has some problems that conflicts directly with the Catholic Church and the teachings of God.
...who was ALSO a degreed cosmologist and physicist.
Which do you think was necessary to establish the "Big Bang"? Religious faith or observation and measurement of physical objects?
I am doubtful that it was his Catholicism that carried the day in terms of science. Just like Murray Gell-Mann being way into Buddhism and even tried to apply it in his classification of subatomic particles (riffing on the "8-fold way", if I recall), but at the end of the day it wasn't the Buddhism that made the case, it was the science.
Wrong.
Why did you mention it?
But it does. It's not a problem.Religion cannot have any role in science.
Science has no location. The theories of science Steno created don't leave. They are still here. They still originated from him. Becoming a Bishop doesn't change anything.Nicolas Steno is another prime example. He established the core of much of what we know about old earth Geology but he, himself, ultimately left the sciences and became a Bishop.
But it did. You gave the example yourself.Murray Gell-Mann (a leader in the early development of the standard model of physics) was heavily influenced by Buddhism when he tried to leverage it for his classification scheme of subatomic particles (8 fold way). BUT THE RELIGIOUS STUFF HAD NOTHING WHATSOEVER to do with the science per se.
I've heard that description, yes.Sure the people doing it were religious in one way or another, and maybe even they felt it was a great thing to see the "mind of God" in their discoveries.
Why not? It does.But religion CANNOT play a role in science
WRONG. Science is a set of falsifiable theories. It is not observation. All observations are subject to the problems of phenomenology. Tests in science only try to break a theory of science. That's all.since science works ONLY with the testable and/or observable.
Void argument fallacy. You have not described any 'miracle'.This is not to say that scientists cannot be religious, but they are forbidden to introduce "miracles" into their science
Science isn't a lab.and there's almost nothing I can think of that would call for a religious thought in the science lab.
Not at all. I am not defining anything.This is akin to using the word you want to define in the definition.
Yes.So you're saying the evidence that the universe has always existed is that the universe exists.
Modal fallacy. Nothing about the universe existing requires that it has always existed. Yet the fact that the universe exists is evidence that it may have always existed and always will.The universe exists therefore it has always existed.
A possibility, but again, a modal fallacy.I exist therefore I will always exist.
Excellent
There is no contradiction whatsoever.
No? Much of physics is there because people assume the existence of a rational God with rational laws.
But it does. It's not a problem.
Science has no location. The theories of science Steno created don't leave. They are still here. They still originated from him. Becoming a Bishop doesn't change anything.
But it did. You gave the example yourself.
I've heard that description, yes.
Why not? It does.
WRONG. Science is a set of falsifiable theories. It is not observation. All observations are subject to the problems of phenomenology. Tests in science only try to break a theory of science. That's all.
Void argument fallacy. You have not described any 'miracle'.
Science isn't a lab.
Many theories of science are inspired by religion. There is nothing wrong with that.
Not at all. I am not defining anything.
Yes.
Modal fallacy. Nothing about the universe existing requires that it has always existed. Yet the fact that the universe exists is evidence that it may have always existed and always will.
A possibility, but again, a modal fallacy.
I just listed them in my post. Go read it again.
The existence of the universe is evidence only that the universe exists. The fact the universe exists is evidence it may have been created just like the presence of a birthday cakes suggests it was created.
I did and I didn't see any specific contradiction to Catholic church teaching mentioned. I may have missed it but I don't believe i did.
How would you resolve the paradox of the Big Bang then, and still stay within the bounds of the teachings of the Catholic Church?
Either the 'universe' isn't universal and therefore is not the universe, or
God had a beginning and therefore an end.
Which is it?
How would you resolve the paradox of the Big Bang then, and still stay within the bounds of the teachings of the Catholic Church?
Either the 'universe' isn't universal and therefore is not the universe, or
God had a beginning and therefore an end.
Into the Night View said:How would you resolve the paradox of the Big Bang then, and still stay within the bounds of the teachings of the Catholic Church?
Either the 'universe' isn't universal and therefore is not the universe, or
God had a beginning and therefore an end.
Which is it?
You've created a false dichotomy. What church teaching is directly contradicted by the theory of the big bang?
Paradox. It's a real paradox. There is no other kind of paradox, dumbass.I don't think those are real paradoxes.
RQAA.Why would God now have a necessary "end" just because he has a "beginning"?
Irrelevant.I understand Aquinas use of the "first uncaused cause" but I have never heard of the requirement of an "end" just because something begins.
I did not define or create this word. It means the totality of existing things. The whole cosmos. The word has been in use in English and French since 1580, and in Latin even earlier. So has 'universal'. Too bad you don't understand English.And as for the universe being eternal just because it is the universe, I've never heard that. How are you defining universe?
Paradox. It's a real paradox. There is no other kind of paradox, dumbass.
RQAA.
Irrelevant.
I did not define or create this word. It means the totality of existing things. The whole cosmos. The word has been in use in English and French since 1580, and in Latin even earlier. So has 'universal'. Too bad you don't understand English.
I never said the universe had no beginning and no end just because it exists. You are word stuffing again.