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No, I am not saying that.I never said anything about a perfect societal justice; nor did I suggest of insinuate such.
You seem to be suggesting that the alcohol abuser or drug user's behavior, only affects themself.
But what are you implying? That because an addicts behavior affects others, those others are "victims" of the people supplying the addict? Is that where you are getting your claim that drug sales are not a victimless crime?
I am asking this in all earnestness. Because we seem to have come to a disconnect. You have made the statement that the drug trade is not a victimless crime. I have, admittedly, made some assumption about what you mean by that statement, and it now seems at least some of those assumptions were incorrect.
So, please explain exactly what you mean by the statement "these are not victimless crimes". Who iss, according to your opinion, the victims of the drug trade? I believe I have already explained who I believe are the victims of a drug trade made illegal. Who would be the victims of a legal drug trade?
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