Hello Flash,
That runs counter to what I've understood.
60% of the consumer economy is the top 20%?
Can you support that claim with a link?
It makes logical sense. If the top 20% gets an increasing share of the income, it only stands to reason that they do an increasing percentage of consumer spending.
The figures come from the Bureau of Labor Standards. It will take some time to find it. Meanwhile, see this older article explaining why the 2008 recession was slow to recover because of the decline in the purchase of luxury items by the wealthy--it includes that 60% statements.
https://www.nytimes.com/2011/08/04/business/sales-of-luxury-goods-are-recovering-strongly.html?_r=0
BLS also includes the data about Americans spending a smaller percentage of their income on most consumer items (food, clothing, etc.).