Horrific, completely inappropriate analogy #114...
Yes just as Soviet History books said they liberated Eastern Europe and ours say they oppressed them. Guess they're just both right.There is really no point in discussing this since Northerners are going to believe what they want to anyway.
Our history books said one thing; their's said another.
Anti-intellectual - try using rational deduction, and never attempt the rigors of law school.I have read every one of those, and none of them specify slavery as the issue prompting succession.
Is this like, "the sins of the father?" I guess in the Pacific NW, I am a "son of Oregon Trail..." Sorry, couldn't resist.Being that I am a Son of the Confederacy
Do you have ADD? Seriously, you have been using this, "oh, look at what Congress did/did not do" for quite a while and I have demonstrated how it can be used to suggest that Northerners were not racist (i.e. that it is retarded logic), but now you have "forgotten" your previous arguments? Yeah, I'm being a consistency Nazi, here...You already assume Northerners are not racist!!!! That has been your idiotic point all along, that you think Southerners are racists who wanted to keep slavery and Northerners were pure as the wind-driven snow abolitionists who had been fighting to free the poor black people for years. You are a total crock of shit.
I've not argued anything, I have presented FACTS! What is on paper, what is the record of events, what is the evidence to show or prove your point, are valid and important things to introduce in a debate or argument. I certainly understand why you want to throw out the facts and pretend what's on paper doesn't exist, but it does and you need to face the truth and stop lying to yourself.
I have already established that abolition was what drove Northern policy in Western Lands but not toward the South, and that the war was initially a war for Union. The South and North did not have the same war aims or reasons for fighting. The South seceeded over slavery (primarily over the debate over slavery in the West) and then faught a war over that.No, we settled this before... The North accepted Northern slavery while emancipating Southern slaves. See: Emancipation Proclamation
Heard of it, don't believe in it. I believe in republicanism, where institutions work within an established order to create laws. Democracy is something you can be proud of though, because it was Southern ideologues such as Jefferson and Jackson that popularized it and of course, most people embrace it today.WTF? ...Ever heard of "Democracy?" I think this is a pretty general "thought" among people who believe in American liberty and freedom.
No, this sounds very inspiring to me - what did they expect, a handout? They should have grown food for themselves, seeing as how they deliberately lacked industry, agriculture should have paid off for once. BTW, as an occupied territory, I still don't see how you can give the South any credit for what was going on in DC. BTW - we all know territories may send reps to Congress, but they don't get to vote!For a brief period after the war, the South was an "occupied territory" and books have been written about how the Union Army was instructed to literally starve Southerners to death, rather than having to take care of them or house and shelter them as refugees. Another chapter in your illustrious US History you apparently want to forget about, and hoped that I didn't know about.
Dix, why did the South wait until its party was out of power to seceed over an issue such as tariffs?
There is not one shread of evidence that anything other than the threat to slavery prompted secession, and you have never posted it. You also lied again about the 2% figure - go back and actually read the link I posted of the 1860 Census.
Secondly, 8th Grade history is when they teach abstractions like "preserve the Union" and "war over secession." But as you get older, you can't help but notice that the only reason why the South seceeded was over slavery. Especially if you spend much time reading up on the debate over Western Lands.
Do you have ADD? Seriously, you have been using this, "oh, look at what Congress did/did not do" for quite a while and I have demonstrated how it can be used to suggest that Northerners were not racist (i.e. that it is retarded logic), but now you have "forgotten" your previous arguments? Yeah, I'm being a consistency Nazi, here...
I have already established that abolition was what drove Northern policy in Western Lands but not toward the South, and that the war was initially a war for Union. The South and North did not have the same war aims or reasons for fighting. The South seceeded over slavery (primarily over the debate over slavery in the West) and then faught a war over that.
BTW, as an occupied territory, I still don't see how you can give the South any credit for what was going on in DC. BTW - we all know territories may send reps to Congress, but they don't get to vote!
The "it wasn't about slaves" mantra is the same mantra we repreated over and over in post war Germany, "not all germans were nazis." Technically true but the vast majority LOVED what the Nazis were doing. Read Hitler's willing executioners sometime. It will shed new light on the myth that German's didn't know.
Anyway, the only issue discussed in Southern newspapers was how the Republican President and the Republicans in congress were going to free the slaves, even though Lincoln never said that. The automatic assumption was that Lincoln would hold the same radical beliefs as the radical republicans in congress and that they would have to lose free labor and start paying people to work their fields. I always love to hear how it was going to destroy the southern economic system. All it was going to do was make it a little less profitable.
The "it wasn't about slaves" mantra is the same mantra we repreated over and over in post war Germany, "not all germans were nazis." Technically true but the vast majority LOVED what the Nazis were doing. Read Hitler's willing executioners sometime. It will shed new light on the myth that German's didn't know.
This question makes absolutely no sense whatsoever. As far as I know, there was never a "Southern" party. There was the Democratic party, which was largely popular in the South, but them being in power or out of power, had little to do with tariffs imposed by foreign countries on Southern cotton as a result of Northern industries imposing tariffs on their exports.
"The THREAT to Slavery" and "Slavery" are two different things. Let's not start trying to wiggle away from your original argument. You started off saying that "slavery" was the issue, now you want to change that to "the threat to slavery" and hope I don't notice. But, I notice everything!
Do you have ANY proof the South didn't have a vote in Congress from 1861 to 1870, as you have argued? If so, I would like to see it. I think you are full of shit and blowing smoke up our ass, personally.
Hey Dix, here's some more numbers for you to ignore. The essay is neat because it talks about how schools address slavery:
http://www.essays.cc/free_essays/a1/lpf305.shtml
The Third Party System (FPS being Fed/DR and SPS being Whig/Dem) of Republicans and Democrats was the first system drawn along regional lines. The Whig candidacy of Winfield Scot in 1852 effectively drove the Southern Whigs into the Democratic Party, and issues such as the Compromise of 1850, Bleeding Kansas, Bleeding Sumner, and Dred Scot drove Northern Whigs and many Dems into the new Republican Party. Also, the Northern Dems ran a separate candidate--Stephen Douglass--in 1860 who drew votes from predominantly non-slaveholding constituents in the districts he carried in the South. So it is quite accurate to refer the the Dems as the Southern Party. In 1860, they didn't carry a single Northern state and Lincoln's name did not appear on most Southern ballots.
No, there is very little difference. The issue was slavery, both sides saw it differently. The North looked at "the containment" of slavery, while the South looked at "the threat" to slavery. Its really even more damning that the South saw it in these terms, because we weren't talking about anything immediate here. It would have made far more sense if the North had been calling for an immediate ban, but the South viewed the containment of slavery as a direct threat.
http://www.eagleton.rutgers.edu/e-gov/e-politicalarchive-reconstruction.htm
Most of the Southern states reformed in December of 1865, but the Republicans refused to let their representatives be seated, and eventually Congress adopted its own requirements which nullified all the constitutions except Tennessee's, placed the South under occupation, etc. Also, if you will examine an election map, you will see that they didn't get to vote in the presidential races of 1868 and 1872 or were under control of carpetbagger governments in which case few people could actually vote.
Doesn't sound like the South had such a strong-arm control over the poor Northern abolitionists to me. Sounds like we had a good healthy mix of ideas and political viewpoints, and they were all represented in Congress... doesn't sound like the Southern Racist Party ruled with an iron fist at all.
Yes, there is a great deal of difference between "threat to slavery" and "slavery." I am sorry you don't see the stark difference in the two, because this is at the heart of the issue we are debating. You see, if you change "threat to slavery" to read "threat to personal property" you essentially have my argument, although I maintain there wasn't a 'single' issue, rather a multitude of issues. I can deal with a lot of things in a debate, but changing your argument in mid stream to essentially the point I have been arguing all along, is just not acceptable.
Hmmm, funny thing about your source, it says "By the time Congress convened in December 1865, most southern state governments were reconstructed, and had elected representatives to Congress." So your assertion the South didn't have any political power for the entire decade, is false.
You mean these election maps?
Looks like the South voted, except for Texas, Mississippi and Virginia in 1868, because they were not yet reconstructed.
The thing is, here we are sidetracked into a debate of what the US did AFTER the Civil War, about Slavery. AFTER Lincoln had proclaimed Slavery as "the cause" and subsequent justification, for the bloodiest war of our history. It's intellectually unfair to look at events AFTER something happens, and claim it proves the reasons and issues before it happened. I have repeatedly asked you to explain why the United States Congress had not taken measures to do away with slavery before the Civil War, and you continue to point to events long after the war to demonstrate this, but that wasn't the question I asked. Containment? Kindly explain the acceptance of West Virginia (a slave state) into the Union in 1863, when not a single Southern state was even IN the US! ...And "containment" is a fucking long ass way from "Abolition," which is what you originally claimed the "Northern policy" favored, over the "Southern policy" of Slavery!
...yes indeed, you do like to wiggle and writhe.
It did indeed, because there was nothing objectionable about keeping slavery out of the territories except that it embarrassed the South, so nothing meaningful ever occurred until settlers began to force the issue locally in the 1850's.
That argument doesn't have merit because life comes before property. My argument has been consistent - that viewing the debate over the expansion of slavery, the South viewed the prospect of being boxed in as threatening to slavery in the long run, because it could result in enough states being free that the matter of full emancipation could one day be forced upon them. That is why they seceeded (over the threats to slavery in the short run and long run: which is the same as slavery when you figure that containment would inevitably lead to full emancipation).
Try reading the whole thing until you get to the part where Congress reacted to the creation of the new state governments. It shouldn't really be this hard.
Nice source, btw, but the info is valid, so no biggy. Yes, three states were excluded, and anything colored in red is not a legitimate analysis of the will of the inhabitants, because it means a carpetbagger government was in power and doing whatever it felt like doing. Also, don't forget that there were 8 zones of military occupation to protect these governments and their constituents.
I have already answered that question. The answer is the belief that unionism was a necessary thing. I don't see what the value of it is myself, but that was the feeling at the time. The actions of the North after the war prove what they had wanted to do all along, but couldn't because of the reality of the political situation.
As for your criticism of containment, it is the same stupid line of criticism that neocons use in the present time. For example, comprehensive immigration reform is invalid because it doesn't completely solve the problem 100% (anti-intellectual); liberals/libertarians/etc. cannot legitimately question the merits of going to war when we are there now and so what does it matter (this one is so retarded it annoys the hell out of me to hear it)?; and other such rhetorical gaffs.
You seem unable to grasp the realities of politics. For example, using the most recent popular usage of the word "containment," would you have told Truman that his Doctrine of Containment was invalid because it would not make communism disappear overnight and that he should substitute in its place a Doctine of Communist Abolition? Do you question the committment of the pro-life movement for adopting a defacto policy of containment while callously letting 4000 babies die everyday on their watch?
Now, stop trying to wriggle and writhe your way out of debates using logical fallacies and infantile rhetoric.
If you wish to question their sincerity, that is your perogative.Are you saying the US Congress did nothing to free the slaves all those years out of concern for embarrassing the south? So, they were basically "ABOLINOS" ...Ablotionist in Name Only? That is a really new twist, I hadn't heard that lame explanation before. Kudos for thinking that one up!
Lives of slaves did not come before property is 1860 America, the SCOTUS had ruled on it, and they were property. I reiterate, it was the UNITED STATES Supreme Court, not the CSA Supreme Court, who ruled this.
But back to a key fundamental issue, the reason the war was fought. Your argument throughout this debate has been, the Civil War was fought over the issue of Slavery. I have maintained it was not the issue of Slavery, rather a host of economic and constitutional issues concerning state's rights, tariffs, and property rights, and slavery was a sub-issue of the property rights argument. Now, you are trying to change your argument to "threat to slavery" and I can't allow that to stand. It has been my argument all along, one of the reasons for the war was a threat of the federalist government seizing over 4 billion dollars worth of "property" in the South, with no compensation, and in violation of the Constitution. Sorry, but you can't change to MY argument, when yours is failing.
I personally don't care how the South was being treated. The South had been denying the slaves their Natural Rights, which are supposed to be the basis of our laws. As I have said more times than I should have to have, the North freed the slaves, so it must have wanted to do so.Oh, I read how radical republicans tried to deny them Constitutional rights to equal representation under the law in 1896, which was about the same time the US was using slave labor to construct new infrastructure in the North. Was there some point about this post-war period you needed to make regarding the reasons the US had not dealt with the issue of Slavery before the war?
Yep, most people were not eligable to vote because they couldn't meet the standards set forth by Congress. There is no way in hell that such evil, rotten people would have let their states go red in those elections. If you look ahead from the time in history, you will come accross of the Solid South, which represents a people back in full control of its region/elections and able to pleasure itself by killing black people with impunity.WTF... First you claim they didn't vote in either election, and when I show you the map, you claim anything that is red doesn't count? It means they DID vote, dumbass, contrary to your idiotic argument that they DIDN'T! The only three states who didn't vote in 1868 were Texas, Mississippi, and Virginia, and that is because they hadn't been reconstructed, the rest of them had functioning government, elected representatives, and a political voice in Congress. But this STILL doesn't answer the question of why the US didn't deal with the issue of Slavery before the Civil War.
This sounds like political double-speak for, "It wasn't a very popular idea at the time." Which is what I have argued all along. There were very few (if any) abolitionists serving in Congress, even in 1860! The overwhelming and vast majority of Americans were either indifferent to the issue of Slavery, or didn't favor giving slaves equality in society, because they did not see them as "equal" in any way. This was the common viewpoint of the time, and it is sad and shameful, but trying to pawn it all off on "only the South" is nothing but a lie and complete denial of reality and history.
I didn't criticize, I just asked you a legitimate question. How was it "containment" to accept West Virginia (a slave state) in 1863? This completely contradicts your argument, which has now changed btw, from, "the north was fighting for abolition" ...to... "the north was fighting for containment!" Containing the practice of slavery to a defined region, is a long damn way from freeing black men from the shackles of slavery!
No you don't. And don't call me a liberal, you fag.You seem unable to grasp REALITY! Oh, I fully understand the politics of the day, you simply didn't get elected to public office in America, if you believed slaves should be free. This is why it is so laughable to me, that modern-day liberal bigots like you, will often view the Civil War as some Great Moral Crusade the North undertook to free the slaves. It simply wasn't!
I have indeed compared slavery to communism and abortion. Like them it is completely evil and depraved. My argument has not changed, you are just stupid.Well let's see, you have compared dealing with the slavery issue to fighting illegal immigration, abortion, and Communism in this very post. Who is presenting the illogical fallacies and infantile rhetoric? I am asking you legitimate questions you can't seem to answer, left and right, and you just keep trying to change your argument over to mine, and I won't let you. That's pretty 'infantile' if you ask me.
If you wish to question their sincerity, that is your perogative.
If you could think and read, you wouldn't be accusing me of changing my argument. When you seceed from the union over slavery, there is an assumption that someone is threatening it. Thus, anytime someone like me says the war was over slavery, a thinking person with a functioning brain can deduce that slavery was being threatened. Apparently you are not such a person.
I personally don't care how the South was being treated. The South had been denying the slaves their Natural Rights, which are supposed to be the basis of our laws. As I have said more times than I should have to have, the North freed the slaves, so it must have wanted to do so.
Yep, most people were not eligable to vote because they couldn't meet the standards set forth by Congress. There is no way in hell that such evil, rotten people would have let their states go red in those elections. If you look ahead from the time in history, you will come accross of the Solid South, which represents a people back in full control of its region/elections and able to pleasure itself by killing black people with impunity.
Political parties are supposed to try to win elections. The fact that slavery was illegal in the Northern states is evidence that people didn't like it very much. Putting up an "extreme" candidate would be asking for defeat however. That said, the overwhelming majority of Northerners did not want to see slavery (ala Slave Power) expand into the territories. They wanted to contain it and set it on its path towards extinction. Remember, roughly 1/2 of the US supported slavery and wanted it to expand. There was even a movement in the 1850's to bring back the slave trade.
Don't let the word "West" confuse you. WV was not a Western state, that's why. In other words, it would not be able to maintain slavery because it was soon to be surrounded by free states.
No you don't. And don't call me a liberal, you fag.
I have indeed compared slavery to communism and abortion. Like them it is completely evil and depraved. My argument has not changed, you are just stupid.
Putting up an "extreme" candidate would be asking for defeat however.
Not questioning their sincerity, just their lack of action. It seems odd that these Northerners who all thought the black man should be free, consistently passed laws making them property and likening them to cattle. Funny, I can't find any boycott by the North of Southern goods and products before the war, and you would think, if Slavery were such a sharply divided issue of the time, that would certainly have been done, but I can't find any indication of it. No legislative record to speak of, but you argue this is because the South controlled all branches of government at the time and wouldn't allow Northerners to speak.
There are two entirely different issues in play here. One is the issue of enslaving human beings... Slavery. The other, is the issue of what the laws of the time said, (that slaves were property) and what radical republicans were threatening to do, which was to essentially confiscate 4 billion dollars worth of assets from the South, without as much as a kiss or thank you from the Federal government. These are two completely different issues, and to confuse the two, is intellectual dishonesty.
Euphemisms are fun, way to be courageous. I'm not here to bat for the US government, just to attack the freaks who made it disreputable to begin with.The closest thing to an individual "reason" for the war, is "State's Rights" and this included the institution of slavery, as outlined by the law of the time and several Supreme Court rulings on the matter. But even State's Rights would not have prevented the Federal Government, or the SCOTUS for that matter, from legislating and ruling that black men should be free and equal like everyone else. The issue was not Slavery, America did not deal with the issue because America was not ready to deal with the issue. You can hide behind this false image you've created of the noble abolitionist North vs. the Racist Slave-owning South if you like, it doesn't take away the shame and responsibility the US Government has for the issue of Slavery, and it doesn't make it what the war was fought over. That is a Myth and a Lie.
No, slaves were never officially regarded as property by the national government until the Dred Scot decision in 1856, shortly before the war. There was no policy because people weren't allowed to talk about it. There is of course existing evidence of Northern abolition pre-1860 - that would be the state abolition legislation from the late 18th Century, plus the subsequent state governments that came into being later on.Yeah, we know you don't care. You don't even have the moral decency to think Southerners should be given basic human rights, that speaks volumes for your character and ethics. You are sounding like a Black Panther again here, and you need to keep in mind, in 1861, negro slaves were not considered 'people' by anyone in the North or South. There were no "natural rights" in those days, for slaves. Our laws (meaning US laws) had determined slaves were property, like cattle or horses. People bought and sold them on the open market in the United States, believe it or not!
If The North had wanted to free the slaves all along, it seems there would be some evidence of it in the public record... some call for a vote... some great debate or filibuster.... some tangible government record pre-1860, which would indicate ANY of our government officials were trying to end slavery. But there simply is no such evidence of this. Instead, we have case after case of obfuscation, ignoring the problem, shucking responsibility for political expediency, and the common theme that white people in general, didn't believe black people were equal or deserved the same rights in America.
Actually, 3/5 of a population tally which would be used to determine apportionment in the House (which would by extension effect the EC). The 3/5 number was a compromise because the power crazy South wanted them to count as a whole, but it didn't make any since because they were not allowed to vote and were not free persons. Technically, the clause also indicates that they are not property because of the choice of words.Yeah, and seeing how black people only counted as 3/5 of a vote....
Yeah, I would say the system was a joke when slaves were being counted for representation but not being represented while being used to give the South a political edge... That's fraud.Sounds to me like you have let your hate and bigotry get away from you a little. You are sounding absurd and arguing that our election system was a total and complete fraud and sham. How ridiculous can you get?
Okay, Mr. Marx, thanks for the anti-capitalist argument. First, the North abolished slavery during the Revolutionary Era, long before it industrialized. Secondly, it was the harsh conditions of the factory that helped fuel the Free Western Lands movement. They wanted workers to be able to save up money, move out West, and start up homesteads and families without slaveholders interfering with free labor.Again, you are telling me one thing while the record shows something different. Slavery was illegal up North because you have factories, not farms! Most of your industry's cheap labor came from kids and immigrants who made pennies a day, in horrific conditions, and didn't have the luxury of a plantation owner to take care of them. The fact that slavery was geographically confined to the southern states, does not unload the entire issue of slavery onto the South. You wish to do that with your inane argument, but that is because of your bigoted hate toward southerners. The facts do not support your case.
Yep, explained why earlier, and then again before that, and so forth.LMAO... I know where West Virginia is! So... the completely abolitionist North was okay with accepting a slave state in the East, but opposed to Western slavery? WTF???
No, this is me telling it like it is. The side of morality is something liberals are not known for, being the Godless heathens that they are... Again, you mistake abolition for ant-racism, but then there was a civil rights movement during Reconstruction, so...That is a pretty liberal viewpoint you have about the great civil rights activist Dr. Abraham Lincoln Jr. It's a pretty liberal belief that modern-day racial equality issues were prevalent or even present in 1860's America, or that some magical thing took place along the Mason-Dixon to make some men see the injustices of slavery and others ignorant of it.
In retrospect, people should conduct themselves in a proper manner, and when they don't they deserve to suffer for it. Secondly, there was slavery in the border states- Missouri and Kentucky are Southern states eho happened to remain in the Union. Maryland and Deleware are the culprits. DC also had slavery before the war because the South wouldn't let it go, wanting to score cheap political points.In RETROSPECT! It is very easy for us to forget this, it was the way things were then! Black people were Slaves, and your court and mine had ruled they were PROPERTY! YES, it IS evil and depraved! I have never argued otherwise! Nor have I argued the South was devoid of racist views or the desire to maintain the institution of slavery! But you can't dump it ALL on the South! That has been my point all along, had the issue of that time and day been the emancipation of the enslaved, there would be historical evidence of it in the actions of Congress before the Civil War happened, but there is not!
There were over a half-million Northern slaves, and the Emancipation Proclamation, didn't free a single one of them. Had the Burning National Issue been the emancipation of the enslaved, it would have freed them all! Period!
The truth of the matter you want to escape is this... America was a devoutly racist society in 1860, 1864, 1870 and up until 1964, and is still that way in many places to this day. Your attempts to try and pin the blame all on Southerners is probably your way of dealing with your own personal guilt or something, or perhaps it's because you are just a bigot without any other reason but hate. To me, it cheapens the debate over civil rights today in America, to distort past historic events. Your US government was just as culpable and responsible for the issue of Slavery as my CSA was, if not, more so, because they had almost a century to address the issue and failed to do it.
Actually, there was a Gag Rule in place.
Wrong, no cookie for you.
Euphemisms are fun, way to be courageous. I'm not here to bat for the US government, just to attack the freaks who made it disreputable to begin with.
No, slaves were never officially regarded as property by the national government until the Dred Scot decision in 1856, shortly before the war. There was no policy because people weren't allowed to talk about it. There is of course existing evidence of Northern abolition pre-1860 - that would be the state abolition legislation from the late 18th Century, plus the subsequent state governments that came into being later on.
Actually, 3/5 of a population tally which would be used to determine apportionment in the House (which would by extension effect the EC). The 3/5 number was a compromise because the power crazy South wanted them to count as a whole, but it didn't make any since because they were not allowed to vote and were not free persons. Technically, the clause also indicates that they are not property because of the choice of words.
Yeah, I would say the system was a joke when slaves were being counted for representation but not being represented while being used to give the South a political edge... That's fraud.
Okay, Mr. Marx, thanks for the anti-capitalist argument. First, the North abolished slavery during the Revolutionary Era, long before it industrialized. Secondly, it was the harsh conditions of the factory that helped fuel the Free Western Lands movement. They wanted workers to be able to save up money, move out West, and start up homesteads and families without slaveholders interfering with free labor.
Yep, explained why earlier, and then again before that, and so forth.
No, this is me telling it like it is. The side of morality is something liberals are not known for, being the Godless heathens that they are... Again, you mistake abolition for ant-racism, but then there was a civil rights movement during Reconstruction, so...
In retrospect, people should conduct themselves in a proper manner, and when they don't they deserve to suffer for it. Secondly, there was slavery in the border states- Missouri and Kentucky are Southern states eho happened to remain in the Union. Maryland and Deleware are the culprits. DC also had slavery before the war because the South wouldn't let it go, wanting to score cheap political points.