Here are two examples of how the 2nd Amendment was written. Note the differences in punctuation and capitalization. Now why do you suppose the phrase with "militia" was even included if the intent of the framers was that all people were entitled to bear arms?
A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.
A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the People to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.
Why not say "The right of the people to keep and bear Arms shall not be infringed", eliminating any reference to militias. That would be straightforward and not subject to misinterpretation.
If it's an individual right, why the redundant language?
Do you remember how to diagram a compound sentence?
There are two indicators that the right belongs to the people. First and foremost, the writers state it is the right of the people. Look at the independent clause: "The right of
THE PEOPLE to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. NO WHERE do the founders EVER use the term "THE PEOPLE" with any other meaning than the rights of individual citizens.
The right of "the people" to peaceably assemble is guaranteed in the 1st Amendment. Is that a collective right to be properly regulated by the states?
Amendment 4 states "The right of
THE PEOPLE to be secure in their persons.... Again, the term is used, and it means each and every individual citizen.
Amendment 9, which secures rights which are not enumerated, again uses the term "the people", as does the 10th which states unenumerated powers are reserved from the federal government.
In ALL the above uses of the term "THE PEOPLE" there is no doubt that the writers meant specifically the rights of individuals. There is no reason (other than fear or desire to control) to assume the term "the people" in the 2nd Amendment means something different.
Remember, the founders were very careful in their selection of wording. Had they meant the right to be limited to "official" militia members, they would have stated so, with an independent phrase something like: "the right of militia members to keep and bear arms....". But they used the term "THE PEOPLE" because it was their intent that the FINAL authority - that of arms - remain in the hands of the people.
Second, the clause: "A well regulated militia, being necessary to a free state, is not meant to modify the term "the people". A reasonable examination of how the sentence is structured shows this clearly. We have the independent clause "The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed." It can stand alone, indicating it is the center point of the sentence. The dependent clause simply states the REASON for the idea contained in the independent clause. THE PEOPLE shall retain the right because THE PEOPLE are the best defense of a free state against ALL who would usurp freedoms, INCLUDING domestic threats to liberty.
Look at the way the writers defined militia:
"A militia, when properly formed, are in fact the people themselves...and include all men capable of bearing arms."
""Who are the militia? Are they not ourselves?...."
"I ask, sir, what is the militia? It is the whole people, except for few public officials."
The state national guards are, in actuality, only under limited control of the individual states. They can be activated in very limited ways to meet a limited variety of emergencies. Otherwise, the national guard is under federal control under federal regulations, are mostly funded by federal dollars, and are subject to the same UCMJ that federal troops are. By the definitions of the 1780's, the state national guards are STANDING ARMIES, and not militia.
Read the quotes I posted earlier in this thread. They CLEARLY indicate that they were intent on the people being armed - and not just for hunting or personal self defense - but rather to allow the people the ability, if necessary, to defend their liberties directly; because they knew first hand what can happen when a government limits liberty for it's own purposes.
We may not need the ability to violently resist and/or overthrow TODAY, against the current government (though there are some who would disagree with that....) However, no one, not me, not you, not President Obama, not all the congress critters or federal justices, state governors, generals or soldiers can guarantee that we will not need that ability 50, 100, 200 years from now. But if we forego the right guaranteed us because we do not "need" it today, you can guarandamntee the right will not be returned to us when we DO need it.
Final note on the concept of deterrence. The fact that we have the right to arms, in itself, diminishes the chances we will ever need to actually use it in any way other than hunting or self defense. The more the right is limited, the greater the chances we will, someday, need the unfettered right that was intended.