I'm sorry, but you can't simply run away from the meaning of words because you don't like the meaning. I have not misused the phrase "probable cause." There is a disconnect because you refuse to accept what I have said and continue to try and argue that I said something else. And yes, you can claim probable cause incorrectly, which makes it "illegal probable cause" from a technical standpoint. If you just want to argue about something, that is fine, just tell me you need something insignificant to argue about and nit-pick, I can understand. Probable cause has been incorrectly established a number of times, it is well documented in case law, and to pretend it has never happened or can't happen, is ignorant of fact.
You misuse the term probable cause in several posts. I do not know whether it is because you do not understand the concept of probable cause, or whether you disagree with the legal definition of probable cause. You even tried to base the definition of probable cause on the individual meanings of the two words in the phrase. Then in another post you try to claim that results prove probable cause.
Then you agree with me. Sorry. Results ARE proof of probable cause, they can't logically not be! The law enforcement officer "had reason to believe" and the finding of the evidence confirms his reasonable beliefs.
That makes it obvious you are not clear what the legal term means, or how it is applied. An officer can have probable cause, and find nothing. Or an officer can not have probable cause, and find incriminating evidence. Probable cause is entirely independent of results. Probable cause is neither proven, nor disproven by the results of a search.
There is no such thing as "illegal probable cause" neither technically or otherwise. If a suit over wrongful search is dismissed, the reason given is the officer has probable cause for the search. When a judge throws out evidence gained through an illegal search, the reason given is "the officer did not have probable cause". Probable cause either exists, thus justifying a warrantless search, or it does not exist, and the warrantless search is unconstitutional.
An officer may believe they do have probable cause, and be mistaken. That does not make their probable cause illegal or invalid. They simply did not have probable cause, but mistakenly believed they did.
Now, my questions to you are:
1) Do you believe the results of illegal searches should be allowed as criminal evidence?
1) No, never claimed otherwise.
1) So can I assume you agree with the exclusionary rule? Then why have you stated that "This is why it is important to prosecute cases where abuse takes place."? Or are you talking about prosecuting the officer when abuse takes place?
2) Do you believe finding drugs justified the search, even though the search was illegal?
2.) No, never claimed otherwise.
yes, you did claim exactly that.
From post #36:
I think if you study the text, you will realize the framers intent, and it wasn't to allow people to avoid prosecution of the law. If it is not reasonable for someone to be searched without warrant, I agree with you, but there are instances where such searches are certainly reasonable and justified. If the search reveals evidence, it is obvious the search was justified, isn't it?
Right there in the bold, in your own words. IF the search reveals evidence THEN the search was justified. The only way that statement can be taken is that the existence of evidence justifies the search.
Then from post #46:
"I never stated that evidence "justified" probable cause, it does, however, "confirm" or "reaffirm" probable cause and justifies any search based on that probable cause."
Those are YOUR exact words, and unlike the quotes you post from my writings, has not been conveniently truncated to change the meaning. (I did leave out the "what crack are you smoking" part) You say quite clearly that evidence does not justify probable cause, but it DOES justify "any search based on that probable cause." How else is that statement supposed to be takeen except that you believe evidence justifies the search?
Point of contention with a previous point you tried to make... The 4th Amendment is not provided for the sake of balance because we disallow convicts to profit from their crime. It is a fundamental Constitutional right to prevent undue search and seizure, and has nothing to do with punishment of criminals or what they are not entitled to. If you believe this to be the case, you are absolutely wrong.
I did not say the 4th amendment provides a balance against criminals gaining from their activities. I said the
exclusionary rule provides the balance based on the fact that the 4th amendment makes unreasonable search and seizure illegal. The balance provided is that there is a CONSEQUENCE for law enforcement violating the 4th amendment which prevents law enforcement from any realizing any gains derived from illegal/unconstitutional activity.
Without some sort of consequence enacted on the actions of the government, then none of our rights are truly protected. We see that on a daily basis when governments violate the 2nd and other amendments as a regular practice. Because there is no associated consequence for their actions, they are free to make any law they want. With the exception of the exclusionary rule, the only consequence of an unconstitutional action or law written by the government is the law may be overturned.
It is only by providing for a consequence that allows the 4th amendment to functionally protect us from unreasonable search and seizure. If we had similar consequences for the violation of the other amendments, we would see a lot fewer laws and actions that violate our constitutional rights.