Into the Night
Verified User
Random words...no apparent coherency. Go learn English.
What does the New Testament say about homosexuality? Short answer: "Nothing"
- Thread starter Cypress
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Margot
Verified User
Why not,where does it condemn homosexuality?
Chapter and Verse
Margot
Verified User
English???? I speak American
! Motherfucker!
gfm7175
Mega MAGA
'Murica! FUCK YEAH!English???? I speak American
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gfm7175
Mega MAGA
Some are direct, others are indirect, but all are logically applicable:
Genesis 1:27-28
Genesis 2:24
Leviticus 18:22
Leviticus 20:13
Mark 10:6-9
Romans 1:26-28
1st Corinthians 6:9-10
1st Corinthians 7:2
Jude 1:7
The Bible considers such behavior to be immoral (a deviation from God's design for procreation)
How else does one read Lev 20:13?
Margot
Verified User
That's Jewish Law! That Rabbis translate as applying to male penetration
Pagans used to burn them at the stake, hence the term 'faggot', or they tied them up and dropped them in bogs.
AI Overview
Based on historical accounts, some groups in ancient pagan societies did execute homosexuals
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The Roman historian Tacitus reported that Germanic tribes would execute those who "disgracefully abuse their bodies" and sink them in swamps. Archaeological evidence of bodies found in peat bogs in Denmark and northern Germany, some strangled before being drowned, may corroborate these accounts.
Margot
Verified User
I've never seen a homophobic that didn't have self loathing because of their suppressed homosexual desires.
gfm7175
Mega MAGA
The New Testament is "Jewish Law"? Please explain...
Additionally, The Bible (OT + NT) is a cohesive and intertwined whole. You cannot remove parts of it from its context, add to it, or subtract from it.
This is an incoherent sentence fragment. Try rephrasing it in English.
NiftyNiblick
1960s Chick Magnet
How is a birth anomaly immoral?
I can see that I haven't missed anything by not reading the Bible.
gfm7175
Mega MAGA
You clearly missed the word BEHAVIOR... Temptation itself is not a sin, but acting upon that temptation IS a sin.
Having homosexual desires in and of itself is not sinful (because such desires would be considered temptation), but acting upon those desires (whether in thought or deed) IS sinful (because doing so would be considered succumbing to temptation).
Having said that, desire is still something to be VERY careful about.... Not only did Jesus preach about the importance of the condition of one's heart, but James also warns about how desire brings forth sin and sin brings forth death. It's best to not allow desire to conceive sin and to become rooted deep inside of one's heart.
You can't see anything; you remain blind.
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So why did Jesus say: "For verily I say unto you, till heaven and earth pass away, not one jot or one tittle shall in any wise pass from the law till all be fulfilled." ?
Why does THAT matter? Isn't that a form of homosexuality? Isn't that integral to at least 25-50% of gay people having sex?
Margot
Verified User
Are you a Dispensationalist?
Margot
Verified User
Leviticus, is,was,always will be Jewish Law!
I'm not Jewish! Regardless that I'm High Priest in Judaism!
Margot
Verified User
Define that word!
My point exactly, applies only to Male on Male penetration! That's the Abomination in Leviticus!
Margot
Verified User
Define that word
Ahhh, now the games begin! Time to polish up the ol' dictionary as I fear we are heading into a "no true scotsman" storm.
From Wiki:
Dispensationalism:
a Christian theological framework for interpreting the Christian Bible which maintains that history is divided into multiple ages called "dispensations" in which God interacts with his chosen people in different ways.[1]: 19 It is often distinguished from covenant theology, the traditional Reformed view of reading the Bible.[2][3] These are two competing frameworks of biblical theology that attempt to explain overall continuity in the Bible. The coining of the term "dispensationalism" has been attributed to Philip Mauro, a critic of the system's teachings, in his 1928 book The Gospel of the Kingdom.[4][5]