Catholic school vice principal dismissed for being in gay "marriage"

[canceled.2021.1]

Perhaps I am not worried because I did not call you a pedophile?

Oh you didn't do it directly. But maybe you need to go back and read it again.

Hey look I hope this kind of comment is allowed. I would love to add this kind of veiled implication to my arsenal.

However my guess is that at a minimum a warning to cease and desist is coming your way.

Either way it is a win win for me

 

[Canceled.2014.1]

You made an implication no matter how thinly veiled and you know it

No I did not. First I stated that you would NOT be attracted to a child's body. Then, after being challenged on it, I agreed that it was possible but that I had given you the benefit of the doubt. Words and context have actual meanings. Just because you WANT it to say one thing does not mean that it does.

 

[Canceled.2014.1]

Females are 5 times more likely to be abused than males (Sedlack, et. al., 2010).


http://cachouston.org/child-sexual-abuse-facts/

Yes they are. But find statistic for molestations by strangers, as in not family or family friend.

 

[Big Money]

Words and context have actual meanings. Just because you WANT it to say one thing does not mean that it does.

Can I quote you on that?

 

[Damocles]

Where is this exclusivity by age defined? Webster doesn't break homosexuality down by age. It seems to be something you are making up on the fly

Pedophilia is defined by age exclusivity, your poor assumption is in the inclusion because a definition of a different thing doesn't mention pedophilia... chronophilia is a separate sexuality from both homosexuality and heterosexuality. A drive to victimize children is not part of the definition of homosexuality because it is not the same thing.

An analogy of this would be to define an orange as an apple because the definition of apple doesn't exclude oranges. Our dictionaries would be infinite if we had to include what something isn't in every definition.

 

[canceled.2021.1]

No I did not. First I stated that you would NOT be attracted to a child's body. Then, after being challenged on it, I agreed that it was possible but that I had given you the benefit of the doubt. Words and context have actual meanings. Just because you WANT it to say one thing does not mean that it does.

We will see. Like I said, I have seen people warned for less.

Maybe you won't be warned. If not, it opens up a new world of posting for me.

Like I said Win/Win

 

[Big Money]

Yes they are.

The global prevalence of child sexual abuse has been estimated at 19.7% for females and 7.9% for males, according to a 2009 study published in Clinical Psychology Review that examined 65 studies from 22 countries.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Child_sexual_abuse


So your repeated assertion that boys are molested more than girls was...?

 

[Big Money]

A drive to victimize children is not part of the definition of homosexuality because it is not the same thing.

Who said it was the same thing?

 

[canceled.2021.1]

Pedophilia is defined by age exclusivity, your assumption is in the inclusion because it doesn't mention pedophilia... chronophilia is a separate sexuality from both homosexuality and heterosexuality. A drive to victimize children is not part of the definition of homosexuality because it is not the same thing.

Wrong. Homisexuality is nothing more and nothing less than being attracted to the same sex.

Pedophiles can either be heterosexual or homosexual

Not all homosexuals are pedophiles

Now that last statement are what the gay lobby and their defenders fear most. They know that homosexuality is a deviancy so the last thing they want is to have it associated with pedophelia

Nothing you have explained adequately demonstrates that pedophelia and homosexuality are mutually exclusive other than your personal desire to make it so.

 

[Canceled.2014.1]

So your repeated assertion that boys are molested more than girls was...?

Accurate within the context of this thread.

from: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Catholic_sex_abuse_cases

"In the United States the 2004 John Jay Report commissioned and funded by the U.S. Conference of Catholic Bishops (USCCB) was based on volunteer surveys completed by the Roman Catholic dioceses in the United States. The 2004 John Jay Report was based on a study of 10,667 allegations against 4,392 priests accused of engaging in sexual abuse of a minor between 1950 and 2002."
"Around 81% of these victims were male."

 

[Canceled.2014.1]

Wrong. Homisexuality is nothing more and nothing less than being attracted to the same sex.

Pedophiles can either be heterosexual or homosexual

Not all homosexuals are pedophiles

Now that last statement are what the gay lobby and their defenders fear most. They know that homosexuality is a deviancy so the last thing they want is to have it associated with pedophelia

Nothing you have explained adequately demonstrates that pedophelia and homosexuality are mutually exclusive other than your personal desire to make it so.

Your personal desire to have it mean the same thing is what drives you to ignore the facts that have been presented.

 

[canceled.2021.1]

Accurate within the context of this thread.

from: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Catholic_sex_abuse_cases

"In the United States the 2004 John Jay Report commissioned and funded by the U.S. Conference of Catholic Bishops (USCCB) was based on volunteer surveys completed by the Roman Catholic dioceses in the United States. The 2004 John Jay Report was based on a study of 10,667 allegations against 4,392 priests accused of engaging in sexual abuse of a minor between 1950 and 2002."
"Around 81% of these victims were male."

Oh look you have gone all Desh on is and cited Wiki. Cool

 

[Big Money]

Accurate within the context of this thread.

I must have missed that disclaimer in your earlier, repeated assertions. Forgive me?

 

[Canceled.2014.1]

Oh look you have gone all Desh on is and cited Wiki. Cool

So Big Money didn't?

He quoted Wiki in this thread, so I quoted the same source to answer him.

Do you have an issue with the accuracy of what I posted?

 

[Canceled.2014.1]

I must have missed that disclaimer in your earlier, repeated assertions. Forgive me?

Since the topic of the thread is the catholic church and the hypocrisy in the way it treats gays v. the way it treats pedophile priests, I stayed with the catholic abuses.

 

[christiefan915]

So long as they don't get government cash to run their school they get to do what they please. If they do receive government money though this will only end badly for them.

I never heard of any Catholic school getting government cash.

 

[Big Money]

.

WB seems to be saying that "pre-pubescent" and "minor" can be different definitions, doesn't he?

??.....no.....

Indeed they can be.

 

[Big Money]

I stayed with the catholic abuses.

Is that your final answer?

 

[Big Money]

I never heard of any Catholic school getting government cash.

Do they get tax exemptions?

 

[christiefan915]

Why isn't he a homosexual as well? I am not saying that he is not a pedophile. You seem to be saying that the terms heterosexual and pedophile are mutually exclusive. Are they? If so why?

Is there any authoritative source whose opinion you'd take under consideration? This is a serious question, I'm not being snarky.

"Another problem related to terminology arises because sexual abuse of male children by adult men[SUP]2[/SUP] is often referred to as "homosexual molestation." The adjective "homosexual" (or "heterosexual" when a man abuses a female child) refers to the victim's gender in relation to that of the perpetrator. Unfortunately, people sometimes mistakenly interpret it as referring to the perpetrator's sexual orientation.

As an expert panel of researchers convened by the National Academy of Sciences noted in a 1993 report: "The distinction between homosexual and heterosexual child molesters relies on the premise that male molesters of male victims are homosexual in orientation. Most molesters of boys do not report sexual interest in adult men, however" (National Research Council, 1993, p. 143, citation omitted).

To avoid this confusion, it is preferable to refer to men's sexual abuse of boys with the more accurate label of male-male molestation. Similarly, it is preferable to refer to men's abuse of girls as male-female molestation. These labels are more accurate because they describe the sex of the individuals involved but don't implicitly convey unwarranted assumptions about the perpetrator's sexual orientation."

http://psychology.ucdavis.edu/rainbow/html/facts_molestation.html