I hope the Supreme Court changed the clear meaning of the 14th on birthright citizenship…

FastLane said:

https://www.supremecourt.gov/about/constitutional.aspx#:~:text=As the final arbiter of,and interpreter of the Constitution.

EQUAL JUSTICE UNDER LAW"-These words, written above the main entrance to the Supreme Court Building, express the ultimate responsibility of the Supreme Court of the United States. The Court is the highest tribunal in the Nation for all cases and controversies arising under the Constitution or the laws of the United States. As the final arbiter of the law, the Court is charged with ensuring the American people the promise of equal justice under law and, thereby, also functions as guardian and interpreter of the Constitution.
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It would be the absolute height of stupidity to believe that the founding fathers would create a limited and restricted government, only to hand over the power to define those limits to that very government. The Supreme Court is part of that government and has zero authority or power to interpret the Constitution. That is the purview of we the people only.
 
SmarterthanYou said:
you're not very familiar with native american history, are you?
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Teflon Don said:
If the Constitution were clear then why need the Court?

what will you do if the court rules against you on the 14th? Will you cry?

BTW you never answered the question. If the 14th was meant to apply to anyone born here then why did it take so long to make Injuns citizens?
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The native American tribes were offered citizenship or tribal status. Most chose tribal. Those on the reservations are citizens of the US much like US territory citizens are.
 
SmarterthanYou said:
No, you cannot.
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So, when an American lives in France, how does the USA impose income tax?

I was talking to a guy the other day who is a Citizen of India, his work is in the UAE (where they have no income tax) and he lives in the United States. He pays 0 income tax, even though he is under the jurisdiction of three separate countries.
 
Jarod said:
So, when an American lives in France, how does the USA impose income tax?

I was talking to a guy the other day who is a Citizen of India, his work is in the UAE (where they have no income tax) and he lives in the United States. He pays 0 income tax, even though he is under the jurisdiction of three separate countries.
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That's the commerce clause. Does the US Government take that tax directly from the citizen? No. The company he works for does it under duress from the US Government. Your anecdotal situation shows your premise to be faulty.
 
SmarterthanYou said:
That's the commerce clause. Does the US Government take that tax directly from the citizen? No. The company he works for does it under duress from the US Government. Your anecdotal situation shows your premise to be faulty.
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Nope and nope…. You should read more.

The American who owns her own business in France still owes income tax, and it’s not due to the commerce clause.
 
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