So your argument is that all rights are granted by society and man lives at the whim of his brothers with no moral right to life, liberty, property or the pursuit of happiness.
Exactly. In nature you have only the right to do what your will dictates, provided you are physically capable.
Rights of protection, of life, liberty, property et al are only found in societies.
Barring, natural causes of death or accident, you live so long as no one kills you. That is a natural right.
Exactly. Aside from natural causes or accident, you live as long as you can defend yourself. That is a natural right.
If you were stranded on the African plain and happen to have a hungry rogue lion come across your path, it doesn't stop to consider your right to life before devouring you.
And how does that nullify natural right? It does not. A natural right does not mean a right that cannot possibly be violated by others.
It isn't a violation of natural right. Only social freedoms violate natural rights.
It is the natural right that if you see something you want, and have the capability to take it, you do. Social freedoms state that if you have something, it is protected from another who's will state they want it and they are physically capable.
A leopard makes a kill on the African plain. He is unfortunate that, whilst dragging it to its tree, a pride of hungry lions comes across his path.
Do the lions:
a. Stop and think, "Under natural rights, this leopard has the right to keep its produce."
b. Stop and think, "We're lions, we don't have a moral framework to recognise protective rights, such protective rights don't occur in nature. Let's get the leopard's kill"
In nature, there is only the power of will and physical capability.
In society, we exchange the right to exercise will regardless for protective rights, the right not to be killed, the right to keep what you produce/kill etc
AOI: Only in the social context is life or are possessions protected by something other than your physical ability to defend them. The notions of right to life and property rights are a moral judgement created within society and so are social freedoms.
RS: Your argument actually means we have no "social freedom" since that only exists to the extent that society can and is willing to defend it. It is no more inviolable.
My argument is that natural rights can only be violated by exchanging them for social freedoms. Social freedoms are fragile, they are only a moral framework after all. If society is unable or unwilling to defend social freedoms, then you have a return to natural freedom, will reigns supreme.
If society no longer defends the social freedom of property rights, then people only keep what they can physically defend, you return to the natural state.
AOI: You exchange the natural right to take what you will provided you are physically capable for the social right to keep what you have regardless of your ability to defend it.
No, by the premise of your argument, one is simply joining a gang of thieves, crooks and killers via the social agreement.
Under actual natural rights theory (i.e., not the strawman of Rousseau) one exchanges the right to defend their own property (i.e., vigilante justice) for a legal right to seek damages before an impartial body of society, e.g., a court.
Explain how Rousseau's argument is strawman?
You are essentially using the same argument as Rousseau, the difference being you call the moral framework that protects an individual's possessions regardless of their ability to protect them a natural freedom, despite the fact that this moral framework isn't found in the natural state and is only found in social conditions?
How do you explain this contradiction?
Whether you consider that slavery or not, there is no such thing as property in the natural state.
Yes, there is. People have possessed property throughout known history. They had no legal rights to property, but they had a natural right to property.
Throughout written history we have lived in a social environment. Throughout written history, we have not lived in our natural state.
There have been differing modes of protection, some radically different from modern jurispudence concepts, some with poor suffrage but whilst man has lived in society, he has exchanged the natural right to do as their will dictates according to capability for protections from the free wheeling will.
There is no natural right to property. The right to property only exists under the moral framework of society.
Quote:
In the natural state, you only possess what you can defend, whether that is your labour (if you defend your kill, you eat it, if not, you lose it.), your person (if you defend it, you live, if you can't, you are eaten) or your territory (if you defend it you keep it, if you can't you lose it.)
Not just you individually but any who would help you in defense.
So what? Nothing in your argument nullifies the natural rights involved and that are violated by external forces.
I realise that as a libertarian you believe in the 'pursuit of abstract freedom'and like to believe the freedoms you most support are naturally occurring, it reinforces the libertarian ideal.
But in the state of nature, you have no protective rights. Whatever you have, you possess because you have the capability to defend it. There is no moral framework in nature to protect your possessions beyond your own physical capability, without that it doesn't become property. It is merely a possession.
A similar argument is for the social freedom of 'right to life'.
In nature, when a creature has the will and capability to take another creature's life, it doesn't consider that creature has a right to life. If the prey creature cannot defend itself, it loses its life and becomes meat. That is not a violation of the prey creature's 'right to life' because there is no natural moral capacity for the notion of right to life.
AOI: It is only in the human social enviroment where your possessions are protected whether you can defend them or not.
RS: Again, no, you are wrong. According to your argument you only possess the property so long as the state wills it or can defend it. Your right is no more incapable of being violated than in the state of nature. Actually, it is less since there is now an organized state that sees you only as a possession of the state.
LOL The same old Paineesque paranoia.... "the state's the enemy." The concept of the state is only a few hundred years old. Social freedoms predate the notion of the state. They originate from the birth of morality.
In nature you have only possession rights, you possess provided you can defend. I have explained how in great detail. If the society fails to uphold the moral structure and protect the social freedom of property rights, right to life etc, you return to the natural state of freedom, you return to the supremecy of the will.
That might not sound pretty, or fair, but life and the universe doesn't work along lines of what is pretty or fair, it is amoral. The concepts that you admire so much as a libertarian; property rights, right to life, right to happiness, these don't occur in nature. They are a product of society and moral consensus.
AOI: It is a social freedom that your possessions are protected and become your property. Property rights are not a natural freedom.
RS: It is a legal right that your possession are protected by the state.
Yes, it is a legal right, and as with all jurisprudence, is a social right. It doesn't occur in the natural state.
AOI: With this in mind, how do you work out that, with property rights not being a natural freedom you are a 'slave to society'?
Can you present a syllogism to explain this?
RS: I have already given you the syllogism. The right to property is the right to the produce of your own labor, nothing more. If you do not enjoy that right, you are a slave.
This is a non sequiter syllogism. You don't reach the conclusion from the premises.
Premise (a) states that the right to property is the right to produce your own labour.
Premise (b) states that it is nothing more.
The conclusion states that if you don't enjoy that right, you are a slave.
But formal logic aside, this doesn't make your case.
Premise (a) I would tend to agree with, Property rights are the rights to keep the produce of your labour. However these days that is extended to more than your labour's produce and to the produce of others (landlords for example).
But you aren't arguing that property rights being a social freedom, rather than a natural freedom, makes it slavery. Property rights being a social freedom merely means that property rights aren't found in the natural state, they aren't a natural freedom.
Under natural freedoms, you only keep what part of your produce you can defend. In nature, if you cannot defend your kill from the marauding lions, you lose it. This isn't a violation of any rights, because lions don't have a moral code to deal with that.
It is under natural freedoms that you have the tyranny of the strong, and only under social freedoms that the weak are protected. It is under natural freedoms you find slavery, under social freedoms you are protected from slavery to the will of others....
Your argument is that the fruit of your labor is not yours but belongs to the state and you are merely permitted an allowance of certain amenities.
This is a strawman, I have never argued this.
I have argued that property rights, the right to own what you produce regardless of physical ability to defend it, are only found under social freedoms, that under natural freedoms and in the natural state this isn't found.
How have you managed to gather from my statement that protection of property regardless of physical capability to protect it is only found in society, under social freedoms and is not found in the natural state under natural freedoms... that I am arguing that property belongs to the state and you get an allowance?