If you are born in Guatemala, under Guatemalan law, they can claim you as a Guatemalan citizen.So American laws control the offspring of its country. Thanks. So Guatemala has control over the offspring of its citizens.
If you are born in Guatemala, under Guatemalan law, they can claim you as a Guatemalan citizen.So American laws control the offspring of its country. Thanks. So Guatemala has control over the offspring of its citizens.
If they are in the USA, they are subject to American law, unless they are in diplomatic facilities, or are diplomats themselves. Native Americans who were on independent reservations were not covered under US laws, but a Native American outside the reservations was always covered under the 14th Amendment.They are subjects of Guatemalan laws and as such the 14th amendment does not cover them JUST LIKE the 14th did not cover American Indians.
How would they commit a crime, if they are not subject to American laws? Either way, the Constitution specifically does not allow crimes of the parents to be punished on the children.If a child is born to foreign citizen parents while in the US and those parents are committing the crime of illegal immigration--yes, it is a fucking crime--should their child or they benefit from their criminal activity?
Pobre seems to believe that because he posts something, that is the end of the discussion.
If you are within the national boundaries of the United States whatever your immigration status, you are subject to the laws of that nation, just as you are in any other nation. I'm not punishing the child for the crimes of the parents. I'm ensuring the parents aren't profiting from their crimes. The parents should be arrested and deported on conviction. The child should be denied US citizenship on the basis they got it because of the crimes of their parents. The child doesn't face criminal prosecution, only deportation and lack of citizenship--a privilege granted those who do things legally in that regard.How would they commit a crime, if they are not subject to American laws? Either way, the Constitution specifically does not allow crimes of the parents to be punished on the children.
So you agree they are in the jurisdiction of the US, and so the 14th Amendment applies?If you are within the national boundaries of the United States whatever your immigration status, you are subject to the laws of that nation, just as you are in any other nation.
The 14th Amendment is questionable in that regard, and that ambiguity should be cleared up in favor of NOT granting citizenship to foreign national's children whose parents are here illegally.So you agree they are in the jurisdiction of the US, and so the 14th Amendment applies?
The 14th says All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof,If they are in the USA, they are subject to American law, unless they are in diplomatic facilities, or are diplomats themselves. Native Americans who were on independent reservations were not covered under US laws, but a Native American outside the reservations was always covered under the 14th Amendment.
An example of that is Native Americans born on reservations. They were not US citizens until 1924 with the Indian Citizenship Act. Even then, in some cases a Native American could still reject citizenship or be rejected for it.The 14th says All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof,
So some people obviously are born in America and not subject to its (the US) laws and some are born in America and are subject to its laws. Or otherwise it would simply say "All persons born or naturalized in the United States." You are saying that everyone born in America are subject to its laws. That is not what the Constitution is saying.
So let's make a list of people who can have court cases thrown out because of lack of jurisdiction:The 14th says All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof,
Native American sovereignty has become more complex over the years, and it started out complex.An example of that is Native Americans born on reservations. They were not US citizens until 1924 with the Indian Citizenship Act. Even then, in some cases a Native American could still reject citizenship or be rejected for it.
Pobre seems to believe that because he posts something, that is the end of the discussion.
Pobre is, for the most part, uninformed and stupid.
So you agree they are in the jurisdiction of the US, and so the 14th Amendment applies?
There is absolutely nothing about allegiance in the 14th Amendment. It specifically says jurisdiction.So you agree that the plain language of the 14th limits birthright citizenship to those who owe no allegiance to other nations?
So let's make a list of people who can have court cases thrown out because of lack of jurisdiction:
1) Historically, some Native American nations, but not so much anymore.
2) Diplomats
And three.... No that is about it, one and two.
Saying you are a foreigner will not get your case thrown out of court for lack of jurisdiction.
Yes, but the question is what does "jurisdiction" mean. The USSC needs to settle this.There is absolutely nothing about allegiance in the 14th Amendment. It specifically says jurisdiction.
It has been settled in every criminal and civil case ever before the courts. The first step of any court case is settling jurisdiction. If you do not settle that, it is impossible to have a court case. This is the most settled law in common law.Yes, but the question is what does "jurisdiction" mean. The USSC needs to settle this.
There is absolutely nothing about allegiance in the 14th Amendment. It specifically says jurisdiction.
There is no such thing as "settled law".It has been settled in every criminal and civil case ever before the courts. The first step of any court case is settling jurisdiction. If you do not settle that, it is impossible to have a court case. This is the most settled law in common law.