As I said, if laws could actually do what you say they intend them to do, I would agree with you. But they cannot, they too know that they cannot, therefore it doesn't logically follow that the "intention" you assign is even logically possible, let alone a correct "motivating" factor. Their goal is not to remove your free will.
Ok, going off at a tangent to demonstrate this... If intentions don't matter, why do we have laws against 'attempted murder' and 'conspiracy to commit terrorism' laws.
Another point. Are you seriously suggesting that when Xtians campaign, for example, to close a burlesque house on xtian moral grounds, they don't intend to close that burlesque house and limit people's access to this morality?