for the 9th time:
the laws that banned interracial marriage....how did that work out for them?
your link proves that the law had to change due to ambiguity....as i said, prior to 1977 there was no ban on gay marriage, marriage was not defined as between a man and a womanyour own research proves that....that law was in fact changed...
how you ignore constitutions is beyond me...how you ignore the fact that CA had to amend its constitution to define marriage as between a man and a woman is beyond me....how you ignore the fact that approximately 26 states have had to amend their constitutions to define marriage as between a man and a woman is beyond me....
if the constitution didn't matter, pray tell why CA and the other states had to CHANGE/AMEND their laws in order to ban gay marriage? why are you not against that change? it is intellectually dishonest for you to support that change while arguing that you are against changing the definition to allow homosexual marriage....
and maybe when you finally address the interracial marriage ban, you will see why i keep bringing it up....so i ask again....how did those statutes fair on the ban of interracial marriages? trust me, the scotus will strike down the ban on statutes that define interracial marriages and i believe they will also strike down the constitutional amendments/changes that have altered the definition of marriage to only between a man and a woman....