I know that as a moron, you are somewhat of a concrete thinker. Furthermore, you likely have a learning disability of some type, or you wouldn't be this ignorant. Despite the above, I will attempt (against all odds) to educate you.
Literal and figurative language
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Literal and figurative language is a distinction within some fields of
language analysis. Literal language refers to words that do not deviate from their defined meaning. Non-literal or figurative language refers to words, and groups of words, that exaggerate or alter the usual meanings of the component words.
A literal usage is the "normal" meanings of the words.[SUP]
[1][/SUP] It maintains a consistent meaning regardless of the context,[SUP]
[2][/SUP] with "the intended meaning corresponding exactly to the meaning" of the individual words.[SUP]
[3][/SUP] Figurative use of language is the use of words or phrases in a manner where the literal meaning of the words is not true or does not make sense, but "implies a non-literal meaning which does make sense or that could be true".[SUP]
[4][/SUP]
Aristotle and later the Roman
Quintilian were among the early analysts of
rhetoric who expounded on the differences between literal and figurative language.[SUP]
[5][/SUP]
In 1769,
Frances Brooke's novel
The History of Emily Montague was used in the earliest Oxford English Dictionary citation for the figurative sense of "literally"; the sentence from the novel used was, "He is a fortunate man to be introduced to such a party of fine women at his arrival; it is literally
to feed among the lilies." [SUP]
[6][/SUP] This citation was also used in the OED's 2011 revision. [SUP]
[7][/SUP]
Within literary analysis, such terms are still used; but within the fields of cognition and linguistics, the basis for identifying such a distinction is no longer used.
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