John 6

Frank Apisa said:
My guess is that whoever wrote John meant for that passage to be taken literally. I suspect the early church fathers thought it to be literal...not figurative, although I acknowledge that the term "transubstantiation" was not actually used widely before the 13th century. It seems to me that the early fathers thought they were actually partaking of the body and blood of Christ during the ceremony at that time.

Some of the reasons given for discarding the literal implications by break-away churches seem contrived to me...and seem to be motivated by a desire to be as far away from the Catholic Church as possible rather than a result of reasoned indication that the passage is meant only figuratively.

Decent, reasonable people disagree on that...and fine with me.
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The early church fathers certain did take it literally as the the church for the first 1300 years of its history.
 
Frank Apisa said:
At any time, Yakuda. Here if you want...or somewhere else. These threads tend to wander...so at some point we might discuss the "leaving" right here.
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I suspect to do it here would be fruitless because of the environment not that we couldn't do it. Maybe the best thing to do about the "leaving" is to leave it right here.
 
Frank Apisa said:
The passage at John 3:16 essentially says, "Okay, you have offended me, but I am willing to forgive you for doing so. However, in order to obtain this forgiveness, you must first torture and kill my son." .
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very bizarre isogesis.....at least we are clear that you left the church because you didn't like the lies you made up about it......
John3:16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. 18 Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son.
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Yakuda said:
I don't see many actual religion threads on this board so I thought I'd start one.

A major difference between some Christian denominations is the teaching of Jesus regarding his body and blood. Most protestant denominations believe that in the book of John chapter 6 Jesus is speaking figuratively while Catholics and other orthodox denominations believe Jesus is speaking literally. What do you think?
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This is a great question!
It's kind of bother yes Jesus was speaking figuratively at that moment. But after the cross it became literally!
When you bless your food it literally becomes the blood and body of Christ the Passover Lamb.
 
Mr Apollyon said:
This is a great question!
It's kind of bother yes Jesus was speaking figuratively at that moment. But after the cross it became literally!
When you bless your food it literally becomes the blood and body of Christ the Passover Lamb.
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Thanks for responding . He was speaking literally before the cross as already pointed out.
 
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