Daylight63
Verified User
I base what I wrote on the conventional methods of literary criticism, and on expert opinion I have read.
I'd really like to see some of that. Like I said, I've never heard one way or the other.
The historian and archeologist Jean Pierre Isbouts wrote that most New Testament scholars believe it's more probable than not that there was an authentic first century oral tradition about Mary being pregnant out of wedlock. I take his word for it, absent any incentive to do further research.
Interesting. As I said, my understanding of the "out of wedlock" thing was that it was required to match up the Isaiahan prophecies.
And the whole reason Mary and Joseph had to wind up in Bethlehem was primarily to fulfill Micah 5:2
Apparently, at least according to Ehrmann, while Caesar Augustus had requested a census, Quirinius who was governor over Syria in about that time did NOT take a census. (https://www.bartehrman.com/mary-and-joseph/).
It still feels far more reasonable to assume that the nativity narrative is simply made up for religious reasons than to try to figure out why anyone would have known or remembered the comings and goings of two impoverished nobodies in a far flung corner of a colony of Rome. Because Mary and Joseph would NOT have been "known" to anyone until Jesus was revealed as the messiah.