If the word jurisprudence assumes allegiance then the 14th amendment becomes complete nonsense and no state would be required to give equal protection to the citizens of other states. The arguments you are making are complete nonsense and no court could possible accept them without blowing up 200 years of US legal precedence.
No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
But then when we look at the other times jurisdiction is used in the Constitution it makes even less sense for jurisdiction to mean allegiance.
From Art IV section 2
A Person charged in any State with Treason, Felony, or other Crime, who shall flee from Justice, and be found in another State, shall on Demand of the executive Authority of the State from which he fled, be delivered up, to be removed to the State having Jurisdiction of the Crime.
If a citizen of Florida commits a crime in New York and then flees to Pennsylvania, which state would the person be delivered to during extradition? The crime has no allegiance. The only way jurisdiction makes sense in all uses is if it is territorial and not allegiance.
I suggest you look at the other times that the word jurisdiction is used in the Constitution and try changing the word to allegiance and see how ridiculous your argument becomes.