Maybe I gave the wrong impression. I'm not "Okay" with discrimination.
But, I'm only pointing out what the law and the constitution allow the federal government to do. This is just reality.
I might be wrong, but federal anti-disriminatory laws only can apply, under the constitutions Commerce Clause. The legislature cannot simply deem discrmination "immoral", and legistlate based on morality. In a nation of laws, there has to be a legal and constitutional way for legislating against discrimination.
As such, the Feds can only regulate discrimination as it applies to intrastate coomerce. Typically, I think this means private "for profit" companies that have 25 (I think) or more employees.
Federal anti-discriminatory hiring practices, were enacted under the authority of the Commerce Clause. Widespread discrimination in commerce was alleged to have a detrimental impact on intrastate labor, wages, and commerce.
Churches don't play a role in intrastate commerce.
Does it really though? If I open a one chain hot dog stand and only employ amply bosomed women is that insterstate commerce?
Beyond that I wasn't asking can the government do it I'm asking should they?
Why is it ok to regulate business association but not church association.
Well, first Federal anti-discrimination statues that are based on the Commerce clause, have well-defined criteria that make them consistent with "intrastate commerce
Its interstate not intrastate.
Discrimination laws only apply to private, for-profit companies that have 25 or more employees. These are criteria that have been established, so that the laws remain constitutional. You can't legislate based simply on morality. Thats not the way it works. That would be a theocracy.
Cypress I am asking your opinion as to why the difference is important not simply that the government has the ability to do this vs not having the ability.
Why do you think business should not be allowed to discriminate but chruches should?
I agree, however that is not how it is applied by the SCOTUS. The Feds do have nearly unlimited power to regulate even the silliest of things. Farmers that are selling only within their own town are regulated because their sales effect interstate sales of that same product.... Look it up, it is real.Yes it is interstate commerce because you purchase products for your hotdog stand that are from other states. It is almost impossible to treat only with your state on this. What drinks are you going to sell if not soda that comes from another state? So on...
Churches do not fall under the Interstate commerce laws.
Let me add as well that my estimation of the commerce clasue is ability to regulate interstate transactions not every business practice that is made because it engages in interstate transactions.
This gives the federal government almost omnipotent power to regulate commerce over the states since all commerce could in some way be classified as interstate commerce.
If we look at history as well as the writings of the time we can clearly see that regulation of interstate commerce meant interstate transactions not carte blanche to regulate businesses that engage in some form of interstate commerce.
I agree, however that is not how it is applied by the SCOTUS. The Feds do have nearly unlimited power to regulate even the silliest of things. Farmers that are selling only within their own town are regulated because their sales effect interstate sales of that same product.... Look it up, it is real.
I am aware of that but it can be plainly seen that this is an incorrect interpretation as are many current interpretations of the US constitution.
The courts are fallible in describing the constitution as has been shown multiple times in history.
Since you want my personal interpretation...I agree, however that is not how it is applied by the SCOTUS. The Feds do have nearly unlimited power to regulate even the silliest of things. Farmers that are selling only within their own town are regulated because their sales effect interstate sales of that same product.... Look it up, it is real.
I am aware of that but it can be plainly seen that this is an incorrect interpretation as are many current interpretations of the US constitution.
The courts are fallible in describing the constitution as has been shown multiple times in history.
For me it is about what to do about it. I believe that laws that provide for legalized discrimition for the downtrodden simply add to the problem. That they are good to a certain point and thereafter are a cause of the continued action... There is only so far such a law can take you.On a side note, its heartening for me to see libertarians and republicans recognize in this thread that bias and discrmination still exist in america, and that some of it at least, is beyond the constitutional powers of enforcement by the government -- thereby highlighting the need for continued commitments to affirmative action programs.
At least with those who are intelligent it isn't really a debate about if their is discrimination but more about what to do about it.
Since you want my personal interpretation...
I believe that exempting Churches from Taxation violates the separations clause. It requires that government define and specify what a valid belief is to make a "church" and is untenable at its inception.
Since you want my personal interpretation...
I believe that exempting Churches from Taxation violates the separations clause. It requires that government define and specify what a valid belief is to make a "church" and is untenable at its inception.
I personally think they exempt churches from taxation because they are churches. Some "churches" don't meet their criteria for valid belief systems and are not exempted. This makes the Government a judge over the belief systems of the people who are gauranteed a right to believe as they will.do they exempt churches from taxation because they are a "church" or just another non profit or not for profit?
so, how does it break the separation laws by exempting Churches along with all others that are tax exempt?