Try reading the actual constitution and get back to me.
Try learning the context in which it was written.
Try learning the decisions related to the 2nd.
Try reading the actual constitution and get back to me.
What part of "shall not be infringed" are you having trouble with? It's pretty clear that NO infringements are "permissible".
It is the absolute height of stupidity to believe that the founders would ALLOW the government to regulate their arms after having fought for and won their independence from their government trying to regulate their arms. READ all of the publicly available documentation and commentaries to see for yourself that no clause of the constitution, by any stretch or interpretation, allows the federal government any power over arms. It is ONLY by the tyranny of the courts, with the idiotic support of constitution haters like domer, that lets them get away with ignoring their constitutional limits.
lol
The available documentation CLEARLY indicates that ghe 2nd was written in the context of the militia. Two phrases, as well as the original wording, make that ABUNDANTLY clear. That is, except to the rabid, RW barrel-strokers.
The militia clause is clear in itself. The concept if the militia, a well-regulated one, during the time period is also clear. The intent was not that every Tom, Dick and Harry was running around packing 24/7, or even that they had weapons instantly available for home defense. That just wasn’t the context.
The context was “to bear arms”. In the time, “to bear arms” was ALWAYS in the context of MILITARY purposes. One did not “bear arms” for any other purpose.
Your ignorance of this issue is astounding. And you continue to prove it with every post.
What part of “militia” do you not understand?
What part of the meaning of “to bear arms” do you not understand?
Does that also apply to free speech and religion? The Constitution says no law shall abridge these rights. If so, that would mean government cannot prohibit threats, libel, obscenity, or other types of free speech that are restricted.
Why is a person required to have a federal firearms permit to own an automatic weapon--that is a regulation that prohibits ownership without the permit.
Due process is determined by legislative process or court interpretation. Right to life, liberty, and property cannot be infringed without due process--that means laws determine the process by which you can be deprived of these. If you commit certain crimes as determined by criminal law you can be imprisoned, executed, and deprived of property. Those are determined by laws passed through the legislative process. You need to brush up on some basic law.
They aren't, you're wrong. Try reading a book.
You are telling me there are no federal or state regulations on firearms? Those are all "infringements" that you say cannot exist.
You just went full retard. You NEVER go full retard.
You might wanna brush up on basic law, or Social Contract theory. Due Process is going through the court system numb nuts. That's why they're structured and separate from the legislative bodies. That's why you don't get charged by Congress.
No, I'm telling you that you do not need a permit to own a NFA item.
5 to 4. It should be looked at again. The impact of guns in America has demonstrated the horrors of such a shitty decision. The justices should be able to add up the needless deaths and outrageous carnage.
Where does the Constitution say felons gave up their rights when they chose to commit crimes? They don't give up any of the rights in the Bill of Rights except the 2nd. Even the 2nd does not take away the rights of felons to own guns---that is only done by government regulation (along with numerous other gun regulations). They still have free speech, press, religion.......
Exactly, it is the "prefatory clause," the condition required to make what comes after it legitimate
Amazing part is that for over two hundred years the Supreme Court, conservative and Liberal Courts, never directly ruled on the Second Amendmemt because they could not get beyond the "prefatory clause," but the Roberts Court, swayed by Scalia, conviently just skipped over it, accepting the prior Courts' inability as their justification
Bottom line is that no Constitutional right is absolute, none, have never been, and will never be, a fact the gun people just refuse to accept
The 2nd doesn't take it away. The 5th due process clause allows it. The due process clauses protects against ARBITRARY denial. If you've committed a felony based on other protections outlined in the Constitution, that's not arbitrary.
As to having the 1st amendment rights you mentioned, adhering to due process does limit those beyond that of the average person.
then you have a SERIOUS reading comprehension issue. the documentation has been posted dozens of times. it's only morons like you that refuse to acknowledge your stupidity.The available documentation CLEARLY indicates that ghe 2nd was written in the context of the militia. Two phrases, as well as the original wording, make that ABUNDANTLY clear. That is, except to the rabid, RW barrel-strokers.