Question on guns

What part of "shall not be infringed" are you having trouble with? It's pretty clear that NO infringements are "permissible".

What part of “militia” do you not understand?

What part of the meaning of “to bear arms” do you not understand?
 
ATF:

Which firearms are regulated under the NFA?

(1) a shotgun having a barrel or barrels of less than 18 inches in length;

(2) a weapon made from a shotgun if such weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches or a barrel or barrels of less than 18 inches in length;

(3) a rifle having a barrel or barrels of less than 16 inches in length;

(4) a weapon made from a rifle if such weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches or a barrel or barrels of less than 16 inches in length;

(5) any other weapon, as defined in subsection (e);

(6) a machinegun;

(7) any silencer (as defined in section 921 of title 18, United States Code); and

(8) a destructive device.

[26 U.S.C. 5845; 27 CFR 479.11]

https://www.atf.gov/firearms/qa/which-firearms-are-regulated-under-nfa
 
It is the absolute height of stupidity to believe that the founders would ALLOW the government to regulate their arms after having fought for and won their independence from their government trying to regulate their arms. READ all of the publicly available documentation and commentaries to see for yourself that no clause of the constitution, by any stretch or interpretation, allows the federal government any power over arms. It is ONLY by the tyranny of the courts, with the idiotic support of constitution haters like domer, that lets them get away with ignoring their constitutional limits.

lol

The available documentation CLEARLY indicates that ghe 2nd was written in the context of the militia. Two phrases, as well as the original wording, make that ABUNDANTLY clear. That is, except to the rabid, RW barrel-strokers.

The militia clause is clear in itself. The concept if the militia, a well-regulated one, during the time period is also clear. The intent was not that every Tom, Dick and Harry was running around packing 24/7, or even that they had weapons instantly available for home defense. That just wasn’t the context.

The context was “to bear arms”. In the time, “to bear arms” was ALWAYS in the context of MILITARY purposes. One did not “bear arms” for any other purpose.

Your ignorance of this issue is astounding. And you continue to prove it with every post.
 
lol

The available documentation CLEARLY indicates that ghe 2nd was written in the context of the militia. Two phrases, as well as the original wording, make that ABUNDANTLY clear. That is, except to the rabid, RW barrel-strokers.

The militia clause is clear in itself. The concept if the militia, a well-regulated one, during the time period is also clear. The intent was not that every Tom, Dick and Harry was running around packing 24/7, or even that they had weapons instantly available for home defense. That just wasn’t the context.

The context was “to bear arms”. In the time, “to bear arms” was ALWAYS in the context of MILITARY purposes. One did not “bear arms” for any other purpose.

Your ignorance of this issue is astounding. And you continue to prove it with every post.

Exactly, it is the "prefatory clause," the condition required to make what comes after it legitimate

Amazing part is that for over two hundred years the Supreme Court, conservative and Liberal Courts, never directly ruled on the Second Amendmemt because they could not get beyond the "prefatory clause," but the Roberts Court, swayed by Scalia, conviently just skipped over it, accepting the prior Courts' inability as their justification

Bottom line is that no Constitutional right is absolute, none, have never been, and will never be, a fact the gun people just refuse to accept
 
Does that also apply to free speech and religion? The Constitution says no law shall abridge these rights. If so, that would mean government cannot prohibit threats, libel, obscenity, or other types of free speech that are restricted.

You just went full retard. You NEVER go full retard.
 
Due process is determined by legislative process or court interpretation. Right to life, liberty, and property cannot be infringed without due process--that means laws determine the process by which you can be deprived of these. If you commit certain crimes as determined by criminal law you can be imprisoned, executed, and deprived of property. Those are determined by laws passed through the legislative process. You need to brush up on some basic law.

You might wanna brush up on basic law, or Social Contract theory. Due Process is going through the court system numb nuts. That's why they're structured and separate from the legislative bodies. That's why you don't get charged by Congress.
 
You just went full retard. You NEVER go full retard.

In other words you have no answer so you revert to insults? If the constitutional language does not permit any infringements on firearms but does allow restrictions on 1st Amendment freedoms where do we find that language in the Constitution? You still have not explained where the 5th Amendment takes away the rights of felons to own weapons.
 
You might wanna brush up on basic law, or Social Contract theory. Due Process is going through the court system numb nuts. That's why they're structured and separate from the legislative bodies. That's why you don't get charged by Congress.

Can't debate without insults? Due process is going through the court system based on laws passed by the legislative branch. But due process also occurs in the executive branch prosecution process. How can the prosecution and the courts give a person due process (for example, penalty for robbery) unless the legislative branch writes that law defining robbery and determining the penalty available? Get back to me when you figure out how a person is given due process without a system of laws defined by the legislature.

Social contract theory is used to explain the origins of rights, it does not have any legal standing in the American legal system.
 
No, I'm telling you that you do not need a permit to own a NFA item.

Can you legally own a machine gun made after 1986?

"Under the NFA, it is illegal for any private civilian to own any fully automatic weapons manufactured after May 19, 1986. Only certain types of FFL/SOTs may make them, and then only for purchase by qualified state and federal agencies. There are no exceptions. According to the ATF’s official handbook on NFA laws and regulations, it’s not even legal to make new replacement parts for pre-1986 machine guns: “There is no exception allowing for the lawful production, transfer, possession, or use of a post-May 18, 1986 machinegun receiver as a replacement receiver on a weapon produced prior to May 19, 1986.”

http://thefederalist.com/2017/10/02/actual-federal-laws-regulating-machine-guns-u-s/
 
5 to 4. It should be looked at again. The impact of guns in America has demonstrated the horrors of such a shitty decision. The justices should be able to add up the needless deaths and outrageous carnage.
 
5 to 4. It should be looked at again. The impact of guns in America has demonstrated the horrors of such a shitty decision. The justices should be able to add up the needless deaths and outrageous carnage.

No doubt it will be overturned someday, but that ain't going to happen for a generation, too many gun supporters who simply flat out deny the facts and legality involved, they are just pawns for the gun industry
 
Where does the Constitution say felons gave up their rights when they chose to commit crimes? They don't give up any of the rights in the Bill of Rights except the 2nd. Even the 2nd does not take away the rights of felons to own guns---that is only done by government regulation (along with numerous other gun regulations). They still have free speech, press, religion.......

The 2nd doesn't take it away. The 5th due process clause allows it. The due process clauses protects against ARBITRARY denial. If you've committed a felony based on other protections outlined in the Constitution, that's not arbitrary.

As to having the 1st amendment rights you mentioned, adhering to due process does limit those beyond that of the average person.
 
Exactly, it is the "prefatory clause," the condition required to make what comes after it legitimate

Amazing part is that for over two hundred years the Supreme Court, conservative and Liberal Courts, never directly ruled on the Second Amendmemt because they could not get beyond the "prefatory clause," but the Roberts Court, swayed by Scalia, conviently just skipped over it, accepting the prior Courts' inability as their justification

Bottom line is that no Constitutional right is absolute, none, have never been, and will never be, a fact the gun people just refuse to accept

Didn't the 1939 U. S. v. Miller case rule on the basis of the militia argument? I don't why the different interpretations make any difference in practice since they both allow regulation.

Maybe the Roberts court was using the "living Constitution" theory that interpretations change with changing times and situations.
 
The 2nd doesn't take it away. The 5th due process clause allows it. The due process clauses protects against ARBITRARY denial. If you've committed a felony based on other protections outlined in the Constitution, that's not arbitrary.

As to having the 1st amendment rights you mentioned, adhering to due process does limit those beyond that of the average person.

The 5th Amendment says nothing about felons. If you say Congress can limit felon ownership of weapons through due process (passing a law), it can also pass other regulations using that same due process (limiting minors, etc.). And in fact, they have done that through multiple laws regulating firearms.

My only point is that there is nothing in the 5th Amendment allowing Congress to ban weapons from felons that does not allow them to make regulations for non-felons.
 
The available documentation CLEARLY indicates that ghe 2nd was written in the context of the militia. Two phrases, as well as the original wording, make that ABUNDANTLY clear. That is, except to the rabid, RW barrel-strokers.
then you have a SERIOUS reading comprehension issue. the documentation has been posted dozens of times. it's only morons like you that refuse to acknowledge your stupidity.
 
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