...you would recognise that I am saying that whilst absolute knowledge is unattainable, all ideas are not equally irrelevant, they vary in strengths and support.
Again, my ability to recognize what you are saying is not in doubt. I clearly understand you want to establish a double standard to judge ID and ET, and evaluate accordingly. You have no intention of being intellectually honest about it, and have basically already admitted your bias and prejudice has tainted your judgement.
Ideas can not vary in strengths and support without absolute knowledge, it is impossible. I am not arguing that ideas can not vary in strength and support, but I think that proves absolute knowledge exists, otherwise there would be no variance in strength and support other than personal perceptions.
I am not attempting to create a double standard for ID and ET, that is my point. They are both judged by the same criteria. But put ET and ID aside, and address the point of whether ideas (or knowledge) can vary in strength and support without absolute knowledge.
Let's transpose it to a different scenerio. A detective is investigating a murder. He has many methods open to him which can provide evidence to help him, though none can give him absolute knowledge of the murderer (even forensics only can be correct in the high 90%ile). He looks at the methods available and compares two ideas, say phrenology and forensics. Looking at the two methods, he can judge the quality of the knowledge they can provide. Forensics provides substantial evidence that is highly reliable, whilst phrenology provides evidence that is based on little more than myth.
So, even with the knowledge of the impossibility of the existence of absolute knowledge, it is still possible to judge the quality of knowledge. This is the philosophical pursuit known as epistemology. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epistemology
Excuse me, but you were the one who diverted the debate from science into philosophy, I was perfectly happy to leave it confined to science. I was only addressing your mickey mouse strawman.
Science is an integral part of philosophy, as is sociology, theology, psychology, politics and mathematics. Philosophy has no limits to its juristiction.
What has common sense got to do with anything?
This one might make it into the DPQM. Common sense is what keeps us from wandering around in the yard like chickens. It keeps us from making stupid decisions, or saying stupid things. It's what tells us that 10 gallons of water will not fit in a 1 gallon jug. It essentially keeps us from accepting and believing things that aren't practical or logical. I know this flies in the face of what you believe, but I think a lot of people give great deference to common sense reasoning. In this debate, and every debate.
You attributing the actions of reason to this thing called common sense. It is reason and memory that keeps us from wandering around in the yard like chickens or from thinking that 10 gallons of water will fit in a 1 gallon jug.
Common sense is merely 'what the herd believes', independent of reason. In medieval times, it was 'common sense' that the Earth was flat, the majority of people believed it. It just didn't seem practical that the Earth could be a globe.
As for scientific principle, with ID this does indeed go out of the window. They present no testable hypothesis, provide no evidence to support their claims, don't submit their claims to scientific scrutiny and base their hypothesis on a 200 year old logical fallacy. ID doesn't stand up to scientific scrutiny because it is merely a notion, not a scientific theory.
No, it doesn't go out the window unless you refute common sense and prejudice your mind from the outset. When you make up your mind that something is invalid before you even begin to examine it, you've not applied the scientific method at all, you've simply discarded something on the basis of your personal perceptions. Yes, the same testable hypothesis exists for ID as for ET. There is no logical fallacy or mere notion, except the one you created when you immediately prejudiced yourself against ID, and the ID concept has been around since the origins of man, as best we can tell.
Again, you are hiding your concept of ID behind accusations that it is written off out of hand, but this is really just throwing up chaff.
It is simply a non-sequiter argument to state that because complex things in the human world are designed, all complex things are designed. The conclusion isn't reached from the premises. If you think you can make it fit, instead of hiding behind accusations of prejudice, present a syllogism that demonstrates the validity of the argument.
The same testable hypothesis do not exist for both ET and ID. A hypothesis is the prediction made by the notion itself, ID and ET are seperate notions and should create their own hypothesis to test against evidence. Because this 'designer' is supernatural, it is impossible for ID to create a testable hypothesis.
I haven't claimed that because absolute knowledge is unattainable all theories and supporting evidence is invalid. I stated that even with the unattainability of absolute knowledge, it is still possible to evaluate the strengths of an argument and assess its worth.
You don't have to claim it, this becomes a logical fact, and to deny a logical fact, becomes logical fallacy. If you state that absolute knowledge is impossible, then any theory or obtainable evidence is invalid because we can not rely on it being absolute. You can't have it both ways. Either we DO have some absolution in knowledge, by which we make determinations about the evidence and give weight and support to various ideas, or we DON'T have absolution, and all these things become invalid and irrelevant.
You are making up terminology as you go along. A 'logical fact'? Ha ha ha!
Your argument basically summises to 'if we can't have absolute knowledge, all knowledge is invalid. I'll leave the misuse of terminology (invalid means logical fallacy not something that is wrong, absolution means to absolve of sins).
Imagine you have a friend at the local stables, who gives you a tip on a horse race. You also are given a tip for the same race from your five year old son, who picks the horse from the paper because of his name. You cannot know absolutely who will win the race but when you are considering who to back at the bookies, the tip given by the stablehand is knowledge that is far stronger and more substantial than the tip from your son.
Behe states that because it appears that the component parts of an organism cannot operate without the other component parts, this is a manifestation of design.
That's not what I read. My take is, he is saying that the complexity or number of complexities involved in living things, are irreducibly complex. In the days of Darwin, we didn't understand how things worked, we could imagine an eye being the product of an evolution process over time, for example. We could theorize this because we observed lesser life forms with photo-sensitive spots which acted as 'eyes', and assumed that this might explain how the eye evolved. Yet, in the 21st century, we know and understand how the eye works, and this previous concept is not valid. Photo-sensitive spots do not operate or function in the same manner as an eye, and could have never 'evolved' into what we know to be a human eye. In fact, there is no explanation of how a system dependent on several other systems to work, could have ever evolved, because it is irreducible. In other words, take it back an evolutionary step, and it simply doesn't function. A group of cells and chemicals in a membrane can't think or rationalize, so they would be unable to know what parts to develop to be able to do a particular function. A photo-sensitive spot is not going to rationalize that it needs a pupil, cornea and retina, if it's ever going to be able to see properly. To "believe" this so, you have to abandon common sense, which you have done.
You have essentially replicated what I said, that Behe claims that because it appears that the component parts of an organism cannot operate without the other component parts, this is a manifestation of design.
Behe's argument falls down because he ignores functional evolution, that the function of the component part changes with genetic mutation. Behe usually reels out the mousetrap analogy in support of his idea, although I could point you to McDonald's refutation of this (research chance for you).
As for functional evolution, check out this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Evolution_of_the_eye
The eye itself presents a significant knock to the idea of an intelligent designer. The eye is in fact, extremely inefficient, the photocells being the wrong way round. If the eye is evidence of design, it is the equivilent of design by a drunken Albanian welder.
You claim that there is no evidence of speciation through evolutionary processes?
No, I understand there is some speciation through evolution, wolves and dogs would be a good example. I am stating that you have no evidence to support speciation in humans.
Why do you believe that wolves and dogs shared a common ancestor, and not humans and other great apes? It can't be a genetic comparison, the genetic comparison between humans and Chimps is a close as that between wolves and dogs? It can't be physiological. Nor can it be ethological.
So what, aside from sentiment for your own species, makes you differentiate between humans and other species?
Are you denying the Einstein quote that 'common sense is the accumulation of prejudices acquired by age 18'? In what way have I misconstrued it?
You have misconstrued it by taking what he said to the literal extreme. He is not refuting common sense, he is making a commentary on people who remain ignorant by claiming 'common sense' as their only justifying logic for belief. Much as you do with ID. To simply make the assumption that ID doesn't meet your criteria for validation, thus it is invalid, is the kind of ignorance and stubbornness Einstein was addressing.
Of course, I have no problem with you misconstruing Einstein, or refuting common sense, in fact, I think it makes it easier for me to debate you, if I can just keep you on the topic, and away from the philosophical platitudes.
You are putting words into Einstein's mouth. Are you denying that Einstein is capable of speaking for himself? If Einstein meant to address those who 'remain ignorant by claiming 'common sense' as their only justifying logic for belief' (something you have done with ID), why did he not say so?
Why did he say that 'common sense' is an accumulation of prejudices, not those who 'remain ignorant by claiming 'common sense' as their only justifying logic for belief' are an accumulation of prejudices etc etc?
As for your comments on ID, I am not setting the criteria for judging the quality of knowledge, epistemology does. I don't make the rules of logic, or the criteria for scientific approval.
You cannot present an argument, and when it is compared to standard criteria, whine that people are picking on you just because the argument is found wanting...