AnyOldIron
Atheist Missionary
I am not attempting to create a double standard for ID and ET, that is my point. They are both judged by the same criteria. But put ET and ID aside, and address the point of whether ideas (or knowledge) can vary in strength and support without absolute knowledge.
Oh, I know you are judging them both by the same criteria, your tainted and biased opinion. You believe in Science, therefore, scientific theories become fact to you. Subsequently, you don't believe in God, so anything related to God is tossed out on its face, and never considered. You are absolutely correct, you use the same standard, your biased and tainted opinion.
Again, nothing but ad hominem attacks. To use a football term, play the ball, not the man. Attack the argument, don't just accuse the person presenting it of bias.
Ad hominem attacks are a sign of someone struggling to produce a coherant argument.
Let's transpose it to a different scenerio.
Okay, I'll play... but just to prove a point...
A detective is investigating a murder. He has many methods open to him which can provide evidence to help him, though none can give him absolute knowledge of the murderer (even forensics only can be correct in the high 90%ile). He looks at the methods available and compares two ideas, say phrenology and forensics. Looking at the two methods, he can judge the quality of the knowledge they can provide. Forensics provides substantial evidence that is highly reliable, whilst phrenology provides evidence that is based on little more than myth.
You simply can't argue that we "know" this or that is most likely, has more weight, is more valid, than something else, without proving we do have some absolute knowledge. If we didn't, we couldn't "know" anything! What would give something "more weight" or validity, if you have no absolute knowledge of something? Isn't it simply an assumption or perception of "more weight" then?
Not at all. Take my phrenology/forensics example. When a detective decides what method is better, even though he knows neither can provide absolute knowledge, forensics is a lot more reliable than phrenology.
Do you not agree that forensics (high 90%ile accurate) is more reliable a source of knowledge than phrenology?
How can the detective make any determination if the knowledge he possesses is not absolute? How can forensics provide evidence if the knowledge is not absolute? How can he compare methods without making an absolute determination about which is best or worst, and how can he do this without any absolute knowledge? At some point, he has determined that forensics have validity, and phrenology has less, but he can't make this determination if knowledge is not absolute, it's impossible. If that were the case, there would be no difference in the two, one would be as predictable as the other in theory, because nothing is absolute. In fact, without absolute knowledge, the law of odds would dictate the most likely answer to any problem, would be the one which comes up the least. You can only flip a coin twice and get heads, before the odds of the next flip being tails is greatest, and with each flip of heads, those odds go up substantially more. So, without absolute knowledge, the odds would dictate any solution to be the one least realized.
Of course he can make the decision, even recognising that forensics cannot provide absolute knowledge, he is capable of recognising it as the most reliable source of knowledge out of the two.
We know this through repeated observation. If we have 100 cases, and apply both methods to solving them, forensics would come out the more superior by far. We know that the information forensics provides isn't absolute, as I said, high 90%ile, but we can deduce from repeating the method how reliable it is.
Believe it or not, I understand what you have said in the context of a science lab. As a scientist studying something in the lab, it is important to keep an open mind, and assume that knowledge is not absolute. Which is why I think you are not being very scientific in your approach to ID, you've assumed your knowledge to be absolute. You've also decided that knowledge which is not absolute, only theory, is indeed 'close enough' to absolute that you can make it a fact, regarding ET. This is not very scientific either.
Again, I have repeated ad nausium, that I don't consider ET to be absolute knowledge, nor have I discarded ID on the basis that ET is absolute. I have judged both ideas on their merits, using the same criteria for both. I have found, as have most people who have looked at the subject without the implicit premise that 'god did it', that ID is a simple logical fallacy that produces no testable hypothesis, supported by no evidence. I have explained in great detail above why this is so. ET has, however, an overwhelming weight of evidence to support it, and as yet has not been successfully refuted. It is simply that ET is more epistemologically sound than ID. They are forensics and phrenology of origins.
Of course, we all know you aren't really a scientist, you're just an atheist who wants to sound like a scientist to others, that's why you use the big scientific words and go out of your way to explain the scientific method. You've gone out on a limb and proclaimed that knowledge is never absolute, and in scientific evaluation and experimentation, this may be true, but it is not a fact of reality outside of a science lab. Many things we know, are absolute, they simply can't be described any other way. Science itself, would be pointless without some absolute knowledge.
Again with the ad hominem attacks?? And I don't use big scientific words. If you don't understand anything I write, just ask, I will explain it or rewrite it in simpler terms.
Can you present any knowledge that you consider to be absolute? I'll show how it simply appears absolute, because of the a posteriori evidence to support it....
You are putting words into Einstein's mouth.
No, I was giving you the proper interpretation of his words.
By rewriting what he said? What makes you qualified to be revisionist over something that Einstein said, by adding sections to his quote to fit what you want him to say? All I am doing is presenting his words. If you think I am presenting them out of context, show the quote in context, don't add your own words to Einsteins.
Are you denying that Einstein is capable of speaking for himself?
Yes, Einstein is dead, therefore he is not capable of speaking at this time.
So's Jesus, but you Xtians would be mighty miffed if I were to take his words, add my own to his and then declare that it is what Jesus 'meant'.
If Einstein meant to address those who 'remain ignorant by claiming 'common sense' as their only justifying logic for belief' (something you have done with ID), why did he not say so?
He did, you construed it to mean something else.
Dixie, this is why you are such a poor debator. You make statements, yet fail to back them up.
How have I, by presenting the exact words used by Einstein, misconstrued his words, whilst you, who have added your own words to make his quote fit your beliefs, not?
Why did he say that 'common sense' is an accumulation of prejudices, not those who 'remain ignorant by claiming 'common sense' as their only justifying logic for belief' are an accumulation of prejudices etc etc?
Maybe because he didn't want to sound offensive? Maybe because he was trying to sound 'philosophical' and maybe he was speaking in metaphoric context? I can't attest to why Einstein said it the way he said it, and he is not here to explain it. You believe he was telling us to never use common sense, that it was a form of prejudice. I think that is ridiculous and foolish, but if that is what you want to believe, you are completely entitled to be ridiculous and foolish. I also think Einstein makes a valid point about assumption, the kind of assumption you make regarding intelligent design. Einstein is speaking to you, as well as those who say things like... "It's just common sense that men are smarter than women!" ...."It's just common sense that whites are smarter than blacks!" He is making a poignant statement about our judgements, attitudes, and prejudices, based on our presumed "common sense" reasoning. When you boil that down, you get Einstein's statement, and I think that is what he meant.
And you are acting as a revisionist, putting your own spin on Einstein's quote.
Again, what makes you qualified to rewrite Einstein's words so that they fit your perspective?
Oh, I know you are judging them both by the same criteria, your tainted and biased opinion. You believe in Science, therefore, scientific theories become fact to you. Subsequently, you don't believe in God, so anything related to God is tossed out on its face, and never considered. You are absolutely correct, you use the same standard, your biased and tainted opinion.
Again, nothing but ad hominem attacks. To use a football term, play the ball, not the man. Attack the argument, don't just accuse the person presenting it of bias.
Ad hominem attacks are a sign of someone struggling to produce a coherant argument.
Let's transpose it to a different scenerio.
Okay, I'll play... but just to prove a point...
A detective is investigating a murder. He has many methods open to him which can provide evidence to help him, though none can give him absolute knowledge of the murderer (even forensics only can be correct in the high 90%ile). He looks at the methods available and compares two ideas, say phrenology and forensics. Looking at the two methods, he can judge the quality of the knowledge they can provide. Forensics provides substantial evidence that is highly reliable, whilst phrenology provides evidence that is based on little more than myth.
You simply can't argue that we "know" this or that is most likely, has more weight, is more valid, than something else, without proving we do have some absolute knowledge. If we didn't, we couldn't "know" anything! What would give something "more weight" or validity, if you have no absolute knowledge of something? Isn't it simply an assumption or perception of "more weight" then?
Not at all. Take my phrenology/forensics example. When a detective decides what method is better, even though he knows neither can provide absolute knowledge, forensics is a lot more reliable than phrenology.
Do you not agree that forensics (high 90%ile accurate) is more reliable a source of knowledge than phrenology?
How can the detective make any determination if the knowledge he possesses is not absolute? How can forensics provide evidence if the knowledge is not absolute? How can he compare methods without making an absolute determination about which is best or worst, and how can he do this without any absolute knowledge? At some point, he has determined that forensics have validity, and phrenology has less, but he can't make this determination if knowledge is not absolute, it's impossible. If that were the case, there would be no difference in the two, one would be as predictable as the other in theory, because nothing is absolute. In fact, without absolute knowledge, the law of odds would dictate the most likely answer to any problem, would be the one which comes up the least. You can only flip a coin twice and get heads, before the odds of the next flip being tails is greatest, and with each flip of heads, those odds go up substantially more. So, without absolute knowledge, the odds would dictate any solution to be the one least realized.
Of course he can make the decision, even recognising that forensics cannot provide absolute knowledge, he is capable of recognising it as the most reliable source of knowledge out of the two.
We know this through repeated observation. If we have 100 cases, and apply both methods to solving them, forensics would come out the more superior by far. We know that the information forensics provides isn't absolute, as I said, high 90%ile, but we can deduce from repeating the method how reliable it is.
Believe it or not, I understand what you have said in the context of a science lab. As a scientist studying something in the lab, it is important to keep an open mind, and assume that knowledge is not absolute. Which is why I think you are not being very scientific in your approach to ID, you've assumed your knowledge to be absolute. You've also decided that knowledge which is not absolute, only theory, is indeed 'close enough' to absolute that you can make it a fact, regarding ET. This is not very scientific either.
Again, I have repeated ad nausium, that I don't consider ET to be absolute knowledge, nor have I discarded ID on the basis that ET is absolute. I have judged both ideas on their merits, using the same criteria for both. I have found, as have most people who have looked at the subject without the implicit premise that 'god did it', that ID is a simple logical fallacy that produces no testable hypothesis, supported by no evidence. I have explained in great detail above why this is so. ET has, however, an overwhelming weight of evidence to support it, and as yet has not been successfully refuted. It is simply that ET is more epistemologically sound than ID. They are forensics and phrenology of origins.
Of course, we all know you aren't really a scientist, you're just an atheist who wants to sound like a scientist to others, that's why you use the big scientific words and go out of your way to explain the scientific method. You've gone out on a limb and proclaimed that knowledge is never absolute, and in scientific evaluation and experimentation, this may be true, but it is not a fact of reality outside of a science lab. Many things we know, are absolute, they simply can't be described any other way. Science itself, would be pointless without some absolute knowledge.
Again with the ad hominem attacks?? And I don't use big scientific words. If you don't understand anything I write, just ask, I will explain it or rewrite it in simpler terms.
Can you present any knowledge that you consider to be absolute? I'll show how it simply appears absolute, because of the a posteriori evidence to support it....
You are putting words into Einstein's mouth.
No, I was giving you the proper interpretation of his words.
By rewriting what he said? What makes you qualified to be revisionist over something that Einstein said, by adding sections to his quote to fit what you want him to say? All I am doing is presenting his words. If you think I am presenting them out of context, show the quote in context, don't add your own words to Einsteins.
Are you denying that Einstein is capable of speaking for himself?
Yes, Einstein is dead, therefore he is not capable of speaking at this time.
So's Jesus, but you Xtians would be mighty miffed if I were to take his words, add my own to his and then declare that it is what Jesus 'meant'.
If Einstein meant to address those who 'remain ignorant by claiming 'common sense' as their only justifying logic for belief' (something you have done with ID), why did he not say so?
He did, you construed it to mean something else.
Dixie, this is why you are such a poor debator. You make statements, yet fail to back them up.
How have I, by presenting the exact words used by Einstein, misconstrued his words, whilst you, who have added your own words to make his quote fit your beliefs, not?
Why did he say that 'common sense' is an accumulation of prejudices, not those who 'remain ignorant by claiming 'common sense' as their only justifying logic for belief' are an accumulation of prejudices etc etc?
Maybe because he didn't want to sound offensive? Maybe because he was trying to sound 'philosophical' and maybe he was speaking in metaphoric context? I can't attest to why Einstein said it the way he said it, and he is not here to explain it. You believe he was telling us to never use common sense, that it was a form of prejudice. I think that is ridiculous and foolish, but if that is what you want to believe, you are completely entitled to be ridiculous and foolish. I also think Einstein makes a valid point about assumption, the kind of assumption you make regarding intelligent design. Einstein is speaking to you, as well as those who say things like... "It's just common sense that men are smarter than women!" ...."It's just common sense that whites are smarter than blacks!" He is making a poignant statement about our judgements, attitudes, and prejudices, based on our presumed "common sense" reasoning. When you boil that down, you get Einstein's statement, and I think that is what he meant.
And you are acting as a revisionist, putting your own spin on Einstein's quote.
Again, what makes you qualified to rewrite Einstein's words so that they fit your perspective?