I am right and I may as well end this making Dung the dunce, as this was never my logic problem, I lifted it off a similar problem posed to the smartest woman in the world.
"Say that a woman and a man (who are unrelated) each has two children. We know that at least one of the woman's children is a boy and that the man's oldest child is a boy. Can you explain why the chances that the woman has two boys do not equal the chances that the man has two boys? My algebra teacher insists that the probability is greater that the man has two boys, but I think the chances may be the same. What do you think?
Vos Savant agreed with the algebra teacher, writing that the chances are only 1 out of 3 that the woman has two boys, but 1 out of 2 that the man has two boys. Readers argued for 1 out of 2 in both cases, prompting multiple follow-ups.
Finally vos Savant started a survey, calling on women readers with exactly two children and at least one boy to tell her the sex of both children. With almost eighteen thousand responses, the results showed 35.9% (a little over 1 in 3) with two boys.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marilyn_vos_Savant#.22Two_boys.22_problem
(Note that I changed it from Man and Woman to Jane and Joan as I thought it would be easier to understand)