Is the Bible Literally True? No, of Course Not!

ZenMode said:
Indeed it is evasion. The question is, how long are you going to continue to evade my question? I have all the time in the world And I'm incredibly patient.
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LIF. Grow up. Evasion. Answer the question put to you. Inversion fallacy. You cannot blame YOUR problem on anybody else, Sock.
 
Into the Night said:
LIF. Grow up. Evasion. Answer the question put to you.
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Answer the question I asked... I'm ready when you are.

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Into the Night said:
You aren't asking a question. It is obvious you have no intention of defining 'health' or 'climate change'.
So you are stuck with buzzword fallacies.
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Oh my. It seems you don't know what you're avoiding or pretending to be confused about. There are so many that I'm not surprised.

This is why I said earlier in this particular portion of the discussion that you are "So far behind". THIS is the current thing you and IBDaMann of avoidance are avoiding:..

What you and Into the PaddedRoom are saying is that a belief about who wrote the Gospels should be equal regardless of whether or not either of the two statements below are true:

1. There was 10% literacy in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus and his disciples and those who were literate were almost exclusively the wealthy and almost all literacy was in the Aramaic language.

Or
(For the sake of argument, let's assume ALL disciples were known to work as fisherman)

2. There was 10% literacy in the Roman Empire HOWEVER, among fisherman, there was 95% literacy in the Greek language.
 
ZenMode said:
Oh my. It seems you don't know what you're avoiding or pretending to be confused about. There are so many that I'm not surprised.
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That's not a question, Sock.
ZenMode said:
This is why I said earlier in this particular portion of the discussion that you are "So far behind". THIS is the current thing you and IBDaMann of avoidance are avoiding:..
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That's not a question either.
ZenMode said:
What you and Into the PaddedRoom are saying is that a belief about who wrote the Gospels should be equal regardless of whether or not either of the two statements below are true:

1. There was 10% literacy in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus and his disciples and those who were literate were almost exclusively the wealthy and almost all literacy was in the Aramaic language.

Or
(For the sake of argument, let's assume ALL disciples were known to work as fisherman)

2. There was 10% literacy in the Roman Empire HOWEVER, among fisherman, there was 95% literacy in the Greek language.
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You are STILL mindless repeating that question? RQAA.
 
Into the Night said:
That's not a question, Sock.

That's not a question either.

You are STILL mindless repeating that question? RQAA.
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Like I said, I'll be here whenever you decide stop pretending to be confused by basic concepts/words and provide an answer the question(s).
 
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IBDaMann said:
You still haven't clarified. You still haven't answered my question.

As it stands, the repository for Global Warming science remains devoid of any science, and you help keep it that way.
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And you still haven't stopped pretending to be confused by basic words/concepts.
 
Yakuda said:
Parts of the Bible are literal and some arent. So what? They've written books about multiverses which is literally a made up story. So what?
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The problem being that the Bible Thumpers cherry pick which parts they wish to be literal or not, merely to suit their agenda.

Those of us who recognize it as a compilation of stories written by men with their own agenda don’t suffer that problem.
 
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