Musk Mulls Sending All Americans $5,000 Checks Using DOGE Savings

Why should the poor pay ZERO and still be able to vote on how we spend our money.

Good question.

When the United States was founded, voting requirements were set by individual states, not the federal government, because the Constitution (ratified in 1788) left election rules to the states under Article I, Section 4.

At that time, many states did tie voting rights to property ownership and, implicitly or explicitly, to taxpaying, but it wasn’t a universal rule across all states, and the specifics evolved quickly.

Let’s dig into what it looked like around 1776–1789.

In the colonial era and early republic, the idea was that only those with a "stake in society, usually meaning land or wealth, should vote. Property ownership was a proxy for this, and paying taxes often went hand-in-hand, since property taxes were a primary revenue source.

For example:
  • Virginia (1776 Constitution): Required voters to own 25 acres of improved land or 50 acres unsettled, or personal property worth £25. Taxpaying wasn’t explicitly stated, but property owners were typically taxpayers.
  • Pennsylvania (1776 Constitution): Allowed any male over 21 who paid public taxes—property or otherwise—to vote, a broader rule than pure land ownership. By 1790, it dropped the tax requirement entirely.
  • Massachusetts (1780 Constitution): Required voters to own property worth £60 or produce £3 annual income from it, roughly tied to tax contributions, though it later shifted to a poll tax payment by 1792.
  • New Jersey (1776 Constitution): Granted suffrage to "all inhabitants" worth £50 (a wealth threshold), which included some taxpaying women and free black men until 1807, when property and gender restrictions tightened.
Not every state demanded property ownership outright.

South Carolina initially required it (50 acres or a town lot), but by 1790, it allowed taxpaying freemen to vote instead.

New Hampshire in 1784 let any male taxpayer vote, property or not.

Meanwhile, states like New York (1777) limited the vote to freeholders (landowners) with £20 in property or renters paying 40 shillings annually, both tied to taxable assets.

The logic?

Property and taxes signal independence and responsibility. Tenants, laborers, or the poor were seen as too dependent on others (like landlords) to vote freely. This echoed British tradition, where suffrage was limited to the propertied gentry.



@Grok
 
Tough titty, said the kitty.

Pay up!

The rich do.

For tax year 2021 (filed in 2022), the most recent year with comprehensive IRS data, the top 1% of earners — those with adjusted gross income (AGI) above approximately $561,000 — paid 45.8% of all federal individual income taxes. This group earned 26.3% of total AGI, showing they bear a disproportionate share of the income tax burden.

The top 5% (AGI above roughly $220,000) paid 65.6%, and the top 10% (AGI above about $154,000) paid 75.8% of all individual income taxes.

These figures come from IRS Statistics of Income data.

Including corporate taxes would increase the share attributed to the wealthy since most corporate tax incidence falls on high-income shareholders.

@Grok
It looks like you forgot to ask Grok about total US revenues and only asked about 54% of federal revenues.
The top 1% of earners earn 26.3% of total AGI and pay 24.7% of total federal revenues with their income tax payments. It looks like they aren't paying too much.
 
We’ve baked the idea to perfection, though the numbnuts will ignore the obvious.

certainly- and then what will be the excuses? I’m sure you’ll come up with some😉
I am still waiting for actual evidence from DOGE that isn't just bullshit and dick wagging. I don't expect we will see any since they are not trained to actually find any such evidence.
 
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