SmarterthanYou
rebel
Actually, no one has been able to definitively answer that question, no Supreme Court, not even Scalia, that is why he skipped over the prefatory clause, so much for his whacky "orginialism" charade
since the courts did not write nor ratify the 2nd Amendment, it isn't their prerogative to define it...........
however, if you'd like to skip the so called 'modern' definition, I refer you to a Senate subcommittee hearing on the 2nd Amendment....
https://guncite.com/journals/senrpt/senrpt.html